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Which component of audit risk can the auditor directly control
Detection risk
Audit risk equals what
Risk of material misstatement multiplied by detection risk
Risk of material misstatement consists of what two components
Inherent risk and control risk
If inherent risk increases what generally must decrease
Detection risk
If assessed risk of material misstatement increases what usually happens to testing
More substantive testing is required
Which type of misstatement risk cannot be directly controlled by auditor
Inherent risk
What is control risk
Risk internal control fails to prevent or detect material misstatement timely
What is inherent risk
Susceptibility of an assertion to misstatement assuming no controls
What is detection risk
Risk audit procedures fail to detect existing material misstatement
What is sampling risk
Risk sample conclusion differs from testing entire population
What is nonsampling risk
Risk from poor judgment misuse of procedures or human error
Which error creates an efficiency problem
Type I error
Which error creates an effectiveness problem
Type II error
In tests of controls Type I error means what
Assessing control risk too high when controls are effective
In tests of controls Type II error means what
Assessing control risk too low when controls are ineffective
In substantive testing Type I error means what
Incorrect rejection of fairly stated balance
In substantive testing Type II error means what
Incorrect acceptance of misstated balance
Which substantive sampling error is most serious
Incorrect acceptance
Attribute sampling is primarily used for what
Tests of controls
Variable sampling is primarily used for what
Substantive tests of details
PPS sampling gives greater chance of selection to what
Larger dollar items
What is tolerable deviation rate
Maximum control deviation rate auditor will accept
What is expected deviation rate
Estimated deviation rate before testing
What is tolerable misstatement
Maximum monetary misstatement auditor will accept
What is expected misstatement
Estimated monetary misstatement before testing
If tolerable deviation decreases what happens to sample size
Sample size increases
If expected deviation increases what happens to sample size
Sample size increases
If tolerable misstatement decreases what happens to sample size
Sample size increases
If expected misstatement increases what happens to sample size
Sample size increases
If acceptable sampling risk decreases what happens to sample size
Sample size increases
If population variability increases what happens to sample size
Sample size increases
What is simple random sampling
Every item has equal chance of selection
What is systematic sampling
Every (Fixed Interval) nth item after random start
What is haphazard sampling
Selection without conscious bias but not statistical randomness
What is block sampling
Selection of contiguous group of items
What is stratified sampling
Population divided into subgroups before sampling
To test completeness auditor usually uses what direction
Trace from source documents to ledger
To test existence auditor usually uses what direction
Vouch from ledger to source documents
If upper deviation rate exceeds tolerable deviation what should auditor do
Do not rely on control
If controls cannot be relied upon what usually increases
Substantive procedures
What is a dual purpose sample
One sample used for controls and substantive testing
What is sufficient evidence
Enough quantity of evidence
What is appropriate evidence
Relevant and reliable evidence
Which evidence is more reliable internal or external
External
Which evidence is more reliable oral or written
Written
Which evidence is more reliable originals or copies
Originals
Confirmation primarily supports which assertion
Existence and rights
Tracing primarily tests which assertion
Completeness
Vouching primarily tests which assertion
Existence or occurrence
Observation is strongest for what
Process being performed at a point in time
Recalculation tests what
Mathematical accuracy
Reperformance means what
Auditor independently executes a control or procedure
Analytical procedures are required during what two phases
Planning and final review
Substantive analytical procedures are required or optional
Optional
Which cycle has presumed fraud risk
Revenue recognition
For revenue cycle auditor focus is often on what assertion
Existence
For liabilities and expenses auditor focus is often on what assertion
Completeness
Search for unrecorded liabilities tests what assertion
Completeness
Bank reconciliation is key procedure for what account
Cash
Standard bank confirmation may confirm what two items
Deposit balances and loan balances
Lapping involves theft of what
Cash receipts concealed through customer payment transfers
Kiting exploits what
Timing difference between bank accounts
Physical inventory observation mainly supports what assertion
Existence
Inventory cutoff testing focuses on what
Recording purchases and sales in proper period
Aging of receivables helps test what
Allowance for doubtful accounts valuation
Management representation letter date should match what
Audit report date
Who typically signs management representation letter
CEO and CFO or equivalent management
Refusal to provide management representation letter may lead to what
Disclaimer or withdrawal
Audit documentation belongs to whom
Auditor
Nonissuer audit documentation retention period is how long
Five years
Issuer audit documentation retention period is how long
Seven years
Nonissuer final file assembly deadline is how long after report release
Sixty days
What are the five COSO components
Control environment risk assessment information communication monitoring and control activities
Strong tone at the top relates to which COSO component
Control environment
Segregation of duties is part of which COSO component
Control activities
What is a material weakness
Reasonable possibility material misstatement will not be prevented or detected timely
Significant deficiency is less severe than what
Material weakness
Significant deficiencies and material weaknesses are communicated to whom
Those charged with governance and management
Which IT control limits unauthorized system access
Access controls
Which IT control addresses unauthorized program changes
Change management controls
Which IT control supports recovery after system failure
Backup and disaster recovery controls
Automated three way match is what type of control
Application control
Input edit checks are what type of control
Application control
If auditor relies on system generated report auditor should test what first
Accuracy and completeness of the report
Weak passwords increase risk of what
Unauthorized access
Parallel simulation means what
Auditor reprocesses client data using auditor software
Test data approach means what
Auditor inputs known data into client system to test processing
Integrated test facility means what
Fictitious transactions processed with live data
Computer aided auditing tools (CAATs) are useful for what
Testing large data populations efficiently
SOC 1 report is most relevant to what
Controls affecting user entity financial reporting
SOC 2 report addresses what
Security availability processing integrity confidentiality and privacy
Complementary user entity controls are what
Controls user entity must implement for service organization controls to be effective
If service auditor report is Type 1 what does it cover
Design of controls at a point in time
If service auditor report is Type 2 what does it cover
Design and operating effectiveness over a period of time
Professional skepticism means what
Questioning mind and critical assessment of evidence
Fraud triangle consists of what three factors
Incentive opportunity and rationalization
When fraud involves senior management auditor should communicate to whom
Those charged with governance
If material misstatement remains uncorrected possible result is what
Modified opinion
Unmodified opinion means what
Financial statements presented fairly in all material respects