fawking massive evil ass bio flashcard deck

five properties of living things

1. response to the environment

2. cellular structure

3. replication

4. ability to aquire and use energy

5. ability to maintain homeostasis

homeostasis is an organism’s ability to

restore internal conditions to normal

Law of Independent Assortment

each chromosome assorts independently during meiosis 1

Beadle and Tatum’s “One-gene-one-polypeptide” hypothesis

postulated that genes determine the structure of polypeptides

Fredrick Griffith

determined that virulence instructions could be transferred from dead bacteria cells to cell of a live, non-virulent strain (dead mouse experiment)

Determined DNA was the transformative element by subjecting samples to catabolic enzymes for RNA and protein

Avery, McLeod, and McCarty

demonstrated that DNA was the primary genetic material in 1952

hershey and chase

three components of a nucleotide

base (purine or pyrimidine) + sugar (ribose/deoxyribose) + phosphate

how did hershey and chase identify DNA as the infectious agent?

labeled DNA w/32P in phages, labeled protein w/35S in phages, infected bacterial cells and searched for phosphorous/sulfur

functional unit of DNA

nucleotide

pyrimidines

single-ring structure (cytosine, thymine, uracil)

purines

double-ring (adenine, guanine)

chargaff’s rule

purines = pyrimidines, [T] = [A], [G] = [C]

the DNA backbone is comprised of nucleotides connected by ______ bonds between the ___ carbon on ____ and the _____ attached to the ___ carbon of the next nucleotide

covalent, 3’, ribose, phosphate, 5’

number of hydrogen bonds between guanine and cytosine

3

number of hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine

2

where most DNA-protein interactions take place

major grooves

chromosome organization requires _____ as spools to condense DNA strands

proteins

phase of DNA replication

S phase

the S phase _____ mitosis and meiosis

precedes

semi-conservative replication explains the _____ and ______ of DNA replication

speed, efficiency

Meselson-Stahl experiment

used isotopes of nitrogen that could be incorporated into bacterial growth and separated on gradients

topoisomerase

prepares DNA to be unwound by creating transient single or double strand breaks to relieve supercoiling, knots, and tangles

DNA helicase

unwinds the DNA strand

single-strand binding protein

binds and stabilizes single-stranded DNA during replication

DNA polymerase adds new nucleotides to the growing strand as _______

triphosphates

in eukaryotic cells, replication begins at _______ sites (___)

multiple, (ori)

new bases are added to the free ___ end of the primer

3’

steps of replication

1. DNA is untwisted, unzipped, and held apart

2. primase creates short primer sequences

3. DNA polymerase adds new nucleotides to 3’ ends of each primer

4. Polymerase pop out primers and replace them with nucleotides

5. DNA polymerase continues adding to the 3’ end

6. DNA ligase ties fragments together

polymerase efficiency is increased by the ______ ____ (aka the “sliding clamp”)

protein ring

what does the protein ring/sliding clamp do?

prevents polymerase from dropping off the template strand

telomerase

enzyme found in stem/germ cells that serve as an anchor for an RNA template that allows the end unit to be added

central dogma

DNA → RNA → protein

mRNA is translated to polypeptides in the _____

cytoplasm

in eukaryotes, transcription takes place in the _____

nucleus

which process involves ribosomal RNA (rRNA), messenger RNA (mRNA), and transfer RNA (tRNA)?

translation

which processes are micro RNA (miRNA), small interfering RNA (siRNA), and small nuclear RNA (snRNA) a part of?

transcription and processing

unwanted sequences that are removed during the editing/processing of the transcript

introns

ribosomal sites

A site (arrival site), P site (processing), E site (exit)

synthesis in the smooth ER

lipids

synthesis in the rough ER

export protein synthesis

purpose of the golgi apparatus

modification and vesicle packaging

4 levels of protein structure

primary, secondary, tertiary, quarternary

primary protein structure

amino acid chain

secondary protein structure

beta pleated sheets and alpha helicies

tertiary proteins

multiple b sheets or a helices

quaternary protein structure

multiple subunits/tertiary proteins

silent mutations

mutations that do not affect the expression of a protein

frame shift mutations

a base is added/deleted, changing how the entire sequence is read

nonsense mutation

a substitution results in a premature stop codon

missense mutation

a substitution results in a different amino acid being coded

mutations that change the actual structure of the chromosome

deletion, duplication, inversion, reciprocal translocation

chromosomal deletion mutation

lost gene(s)

chromosomal inversion mutation

genes swap locations

transversion mutation

switch a purine for a pyrimidine or vice versa

if cytosine is methylated, it turns into….

thymine

transition mutation

swap a purine with another purine or a pyrimidine with another pyrimidine

guevodoces

5-alpha reductase mutation causes genetically male children to appear female until the onset of puberty; common in Salinas (DR)

negative regulation is used when transcription for a gene is usually “___”

on

positive regulation is used when transcription for a gene is usually “___”

off

allosteric regulation

the product of a pathway regulates the first step of the pathway

bind polymerases and direct them to promoters

sigma factors

why are some operons repressed when they aren’t needed?

metabolic efficiency

promotors in eukaryotes

transcription factors

what does the first transcription factor bind to?

the TATA box

enhancers ____ DNA when they bind to it

bend

environmental factors such as stress can cause activation of specific ______ _______

transcription factors

what is an SRE?

stress response element

epigenetic factors control ____ to genes instead of changing the DNA sequence

acess

_____ of histone proteins causes the coiling to loosen, increasing accessiblity for polymerases

acetylation

heterochromatin

“offline” DNA + proteins

euchromatin

diffused, transcribable DNA

miRNAs silence genes by preventing ____

translation

marks proteins for destruction by the proteosome

ubiquitin

genome

the sum of the genetic material contained within an organism

metagenomics

grouping species data for comparison (in-groups and out-groups)

proteomics

functional, total of the proteins produced

metablomics

basic or primary metabolites, species/cell specific secondary metabolites

as genomes increase in size, the percentage of protein coding sequences ______

decreases

transposons

sections of DNA that can move from one area or chromosome to another

non-replicative transposon

moves the original sequence from one location to another

composite transposon

brings an additional coding sequence along with the transposable elements

the human genome codes about ____ as many proteins as it has protein coding genes

half

what are SNPs?

single-nucleotide polymorphisms - base pair differences that help identify populations

how do M.ibericus ant queens produce M.structor males?

by removing nuclei from fertilized eggs

what is the evolutionary advantage of xenoparity?

genetic diversity

how did researchers determine that the M.ibericus ant queens’ offspring were a different species?

physical examination (presence of hair), genetic analysis

female ants are _____, while male ants are _____

diploid, haploid

order of the lac operon coding gene

1. “z” beta-galactosidase gene

2. “y” beta-galactosidase permease gene

3. “a” beta-galactosidase transacetylase gene

three prerequisites for natural selection

1. variation within the population

2. variation must be heritable

3. the trait must have consequences

mitochondrial eve

common ancestor with prototype mDNA

industrial melanism

darker coloration in polluted or urban areas

gene flow

exchange of genetic material between populations

biological species

capable of interbreeding

provides the ATP required for the light independent reactions

cyclic electron flow

the calvin cycle requires ___ ATP and ____ NADPH per G3P produced

9, 6

photorespiration

rubisco binding O2 instead of CO2 due to hot, dry weather

CAM plants

change the timing of carbon fixation to avoid photorespiration; often live in desert climates; they open stomata at night to collect CO2 and release it inside their cells during the day

C4 plants

rubisco is deep inside bundle-sheath cells to avoid O2 exposure

phylogenetic root

common ancestor