Genetics Final review (Exams 1, 2, 3 and ch 10 quiz)

In gene-targeting experiments, the replacement of a wild-type gene in the genome with a completely nonfunctional gene results in a(n)...

A) Knockout mutation

B) Imprinting

C) Transformation rescue

D) Conditional mutation

E) Forward mutation

A) Knockout mutation

The cloning site in a plasmid that contains unique cleavage sites for many different restriction enzymes is called a(n)...

A) Multivalent

B) Enhancer trap

C) Linkage group

D) Polysome

E) Polylinker

E) Polylinker

How do you clone a sheep?

A) Cut off the sheep's leg, then submerge the cut end into hormones to regenerate the rest of the sheep.

B) Insert the sheep's genome into a bacterial plasmid.

C) Transfer the nucleus from a fertilized sheep egg into an adult somatic cell.

D) Make the sheep mate with itself

E) Replace the nucleus of a fertilized sheep egg with the nucleus of an adult somatic cell.

E) Replace the nucleus of a fertilized sheep egg with the nucleus of an adult somatic cell.

The technique to explore gene function by mutating wild-type genes and then studying the resulting phenotype is called...

A) Gene therapy

B) Reverse genetics

C) Transgenetics

D) Forward genetics

E) Gene mapping

B) Reverse genetics

For bacterial transformation, a good plasmid vector needs four properties. Which of these IS NOT one of them.

A) It can be easily introduced into the host cell.

B) It contains an origin of replication.

C) It contains a polylinker (MCS).

D) It contains a mechanism for positive and negative selection

E) It can be inserted into the host bacterium's chromosomal DNA.

E) It can be inserted into the host bacterium's chromosomal DNA.

(The plasmid does not need to be inserted into the bacterial chromosome. It is replicated and transcribed independently.)

What is the name for molecular vehicles used to carry foreign DNA fragments into a cell?

A) Donors

B) DNA chips

C) Clones

D) Vectors

E) Conjugants

D) Vectors

A young boy was recently cured of Epidermolysis Bullosa using genetic engineering. This was an example of...

A) Forward genetics

B) In vivo gene therapy

C) Creating a knockout

D) Ex vivo gene therapy

E) CRISPR therapy

D) Ex vivo gene therapy

Within the CRISPR system, the job of Cas1 and Cas2 is to...

A) create the guide RNA

B) destroy the invading viral genome, guided by the crRNA

C) insert a piece of viral DNA into the CRISPR array and make a new repeat

D) attach the crRNA to the tracrRNA

E) detect viral infection

C) Insert a piece of viral DNA into the CRISPR array and make a new repeat

Why is CRISPR better than the Homologous Recombination method for creating transgenic organisms?

A) It is cheaper.

B) It is faster.

C) It does not require destruction of embryos.

D) It is easy to use in any species.

E) All of the above

E) All of the above

Which of the following vectors can accept the largest DNA fragments in cloning experiments?

A) Plasmid

B) Bacteriophage lambda

C) BACs

D) Cosmids

E) Phage P1

C) BACs

You wish to use gene therapy to correct a mutation in an organism back to the wildtype state. Which of the following DOES NOT need to be put into to the target organism?

A) Cas9

B) guide RNA

C) Cas 1/ Cas 2

D) donor DNA template of wildtype gene

E) a virus

C) Cas 1/ Cas 2

Enzymes that cleave DNA at sequence-specific sites are called...

A) DNA polymerase

B) Ligase

C) Restriction endonuclease

D) Exonuclease

E) Integrase

C) Restriction endonuclease

Negative selection for bacteria that have picked up a plasmid is often mediated by _____, while positive selection for non-empty plasmids is mediated by _____.

A) LacZ; Ampr

B) Neor; Ampr

C) HSV-tk; Neor

D) Ampr; LacZ

E) LacZ; Xgal

D) Ampr; LacZ

It's 1999 and you are studying a mutant protein that causes defects in bile transfer from the gallbladder to the intestine. You wish to create a line of transgenic mice that contain the mutant human protein, for a series of experiments. You genetically modify mouse embryonic stem cells to contain the gene, you inject these cells into mouse blastocysts, and you implant these blastocysts into a foster mother. Among the chimeric mouse pups that are born, the ones that will be most useful to you are those in which the genetically modified cells developed into the...

A) gallbladder

B) intestine

C) gallbladder and intestine

D) gallbladder, intestine, and liver

E) gonads

E) gonads

(You want to create a line of mice that can produce unlimited numbers of new transgenic mice for study. So, you would look for chimeric mice with germ line transformation.Breeding these mice will create a new line of mice that are 100% transgenic.)

If no donor template is given, a Cas9-mediated cut in a chromosome will be repaired by this pathway, often resulting in insertions or deletions and a knockout of the targeted gene.

A) Homology Directed Repair

B) Homologous Recombination

C) Non-Homologous End Joining

D) Proofreading

E) ohshitohshitohshit

C) Non-Homologous End Joining

1 centimorgan is equal to ____ base pairs of DNA.

A) 1

B) 10

C) 100

D) 1,000

E) It is not possible to say.

E) It is not possible to say.

A certain genetic trait runs in your family. In the absence of inbreeding, you have noticed that sometimes two parents that are unaffected by the trait will have a child that does show the trait. This trait is most likely...

A) autosomal dominant

B) autosomal recessive

C) x-linked dominant

D) x-linked recessive

D) x-linked recessive

A recessive mutation causes mice to have a stumpy tail. Homozygous mutant mice sometimes have a completely normal length tail, despite their genotype. What concept is likely responsible for this?

A) Codominance

B) X-inactivation

C) Incomplete dominance

D) Incomplete penetrance

E) Variable expressivity

D) Incomplete penetrance

A testcross is performed on a plant derived from a round, yellow pea. The offspring from this testcross are 50% wrinkled yellow, 50% round yellow. What is the genotype of the parent plant? W=round, w=wrinkled, G=yellow, g=green

A) Wwgg

B) WwGg

C) WWGg

D) WwGG

D) WwGG

A woman is affected by an X-linked recessive mutation. She mates with a wildtype male and has a son. This son will be _____ for the mutation.

A) homozygous recessive

B) heterozygous

C) homozygous dominant

D) a carrier

E) hemizygous

E) hemizygous

An organism has the genotype AaBBccDdEe. How many types of gamete can it produce with respect to these five genes?

A) 4

B) 8

C) 16

D) 32

E) 64

B) 8

Colorblindness is caused by a recessive X-linked mutation. If a wildtype man mates with a carrier female, what is the probability that the offspring will have normal vision?

A) 0

B) 1/4

C) 1/2

D) 3/4

D) 3/4

In a pedigree, a person breeding into the family from outside can be assumed to be of _____ genotype.

A) dominant

B) recessive

C) heterozygous

D) wildtype

D) wildtype

Gregor Mendel chose to study traits in his pea plants that are diametrical and mutually exclusive. A trait with these properties usually...

A) Is controlled by multiple genes.

B) Results from aneuploidy.

C) Exhibits incomplete dominance.

D) Is controlled by a single gene.

D) Is controlled by a single gene.

One gene controls fall color in maple leaves, and it exhibits incomplete dominance. One allele causes red leaves, another causes yellow leaves. A homozygous red tree is bred to a homozygous yellow tree. The offspring will have ______ leaves in the fall.

A) red

B) yellow

C) orange

D) red and yellow

E) 1 red: 2 orange: 1 yellow

C) orange

What does it mean for an organism to be "true-breeding"?

A) The organism usually self-fertilizes.

B) The organism is homozygous.

C) The organism is heterozygous.

D) The organism cannot be successfully bred to another species.

B) The organism is homozygous.

You discover a new species of cockroach living in James River Hall, and name it the captain's cockroach. These insects can either be silver (B) or blue (b), and their color appears to be controlled by one autosomal gene exhibiting complete dominance. You cross a heterozygous captain's cockroach with a blue individual. What phenotypic ratio would you expect in the offspring?

A) 1 silver:1 blue

B) 1 silver:3 blue

C) 3 silver:1 blue

D) all silver

E) all blue

A) 1 silver:1 blue

In a trans dihybrid with linked genes A and B, what is one of the most common genotypes (parental type) for a gamete?

A) AB

B) Aa

C) BB

D) AaBb

E) Ab

E) Ab

The genetic term epistatic means...

A) the genotype at one gene overrules the genotype at another

B) multiple genes contribute to a single phenotype

C) the phenotype will be intermediate between the two alleles

D) both alleles will show their phenotype in discrete ways

A) the genotype at one gene overrules the genotype at another

What is the maximum possible recombination frequency?

A) 25%

B) 50%

C) 75%

D) 100%

E) There is no maximum.

B) 50%

Which of the following is an accurate paraphrasing of Mendel's Law of Segregation?

A) Genes exist as pairs, and in gamete formation, each gamete gets one member of each pair.

B) In meiosis I, non-homologous chromosomes will line up at segregated positions.

C) During gamete formation, the way one pair of alleles moves into gametes does not affect any other pair of alleles.

D) Dominant and recessive alleles are kept segregated from one another in mitosis.

A) Genes exist as pairs, and in gamete formation, each gamete gets one member of each pair.

Which of the following was not a reason that Thomas Hunt Morgan chose to work with fruit flies?

A) They produce many offspring.

B) They have only four pairs of chromosomes.

C) He could easily order different varieties of fly from a vendor.

D) A new generation of flies can be bred every two weeks.

C) He could easily order different varieties of fly from a vendor.

You are making a genetic map using recombination frequencies, and it happens that a hot spot for crossovers (more than usual) falls in between two of your genes. This will...

A) Make it impossible to estimate the genetic distance between the two genes.

B) Not be relevant to the perceived physical distance between the two genes.

C) Cause you to overestimate the distance between the two genes.

D) Cause you to underestimate the distance between the two genes.

C) Cause you to overestimate the distance between the two genes.

You are studying four linked genes. In the F2 generation of dihybrid crosses, you observe the recombination frequencies detailed below. What is the order of genes A, B, C, and D on their chromosome? (Remember, the order you find might be backward from the options listed below.)

A-B=11%

A-C=8%

B-D=7%

C-D=10%

A) ACBD

B) CBAD

C) BDCA

D) DACB

A) ACBD

You cross a pea plant of genotype Gg to a Gg. You find a pod on the female plant that contains three peas. What is the probability of finding all green peas inside the pod? G=yellow, g=green

A) 1/8

B) 1/16

C) 1/4

D) 1/32

E) 1/64

E) 1/64

You perform a tetrahybrid cross (AaBbCcDd x AaBbCcDd). What is the probability of getting offspring that is aaBbCcDd?

A) 1/16

B) 9/16

C) 1/64

D) 1/32

D) 1/32

You testcross a trans-dihybrid for linked genes A and B (to an ab/ab), and you count the following numbers of genotyped offspring. What is the observed recombination frequency?

AB/ab - 15

Ab/ab - 30

aB/ab - 35

ab/ab - 20

A) 35%

B) 30%

C) 65%

D) 50%

A) 35%

You would expect to observe _____ crossovers near the centromere.

A) an average number

B) greater than average

C) fewer than average

D) zero

C) fewer than average

Finger length in Aiais is controlled by a single gene on the X chromosome. A recessive mutation creates extra long fingers. A female with long fingers mates with a male with normal fingers. What proportion of the offspring will have long fingers?

A) 0

B) 1/4

C) 1/2

D) 3/4

C) 1/2

You have a trans-dihybrid organism for linked genes A and B. Genes A and B are known to be 6 centimorgans apart. What genotypes of gametes would this organism produce with respect to genes A and B, AND in what proportions? Remember that gametes are haploid, so they'll each have one A and one B allele.

Parental:

Ab - 47%

aB - 47%

Recombinant:

AB - 3%

ab - 3%

A) With an X-linked recessive trait, like male-pattern baldness, the old addage says that if a young man wants to know whether he will go bald, he should look at his maternal grandfather. Explain in detail why this makes sense from a genetic standpoint. Mention why the grandfather is a better reference than an even closer male relative, like the young man's father.

A) The gene related to baldness is on the X chromosome. The young man's father would have given him a Y chromosome, rather than an X, so he cannot inherit an X^a from his father. The young man's X would have come from his mother. If the mother's father has male pattern baldness (X^aY), he would have given that X^a to the young man's mother, leaving a 50% chance that she gave the young man that X^a in turn, along with male-pattern baldness.

You cross two heterozygous pink snapdragons (AA=red, Aa=pink, aa=white). The female plant produces two seeds. What is the probability that the two seeds will produce one pink and one red flowered plant?

Chance of red = 1/4, chance of pink = 1/2

There are two ways to arrive at one red and one pink.

(R, P) = 1/4 x 1/2 = 1/8

(P, R) = 1/2 x 1/4 = 1/8

Addition rule: 1/8 + 1/8 = 2/8 or 1/4

Mules are sterile. Their problem with reproduction is most similar to which organism?

A) icefish

B) brassicoraphanus

C) seedless bananas

D) ants and bees

B) brassicoraphanus

Chemotherapy often has side effects of hair loss and nausea. Why?

A) Hair root cells and gut lining cells are particularly susceptible to toxins.

B) Hair root cells and gut lining cells divide rapidly, like tumor cells.

C) Hair root cells and gut lining cells have little capacity to repair their DNA.

D) Hair root cells and gut lining cells do not express much p53.

B) Hair root cells and gut lining cells divide rapidly, like tumor cells.

Gregor Mendel began most of his experiments by starting with two different true-breeding lines in the P1 generation. Crossing these individuals produces the F1, which would all be...

A) hybrids

B) homozygous

C) recessive

D) true-breeding

A) hybrids

Taxol was one of the first chemotherapy drugs. What does Taxol do on a molecular level?

A) It induces expression of Bax, causing cancer cells to do apoptosis.

B) It activates p53, causing the cell cycle to pause in tumor cells.

C) It inhibits spindle fiber breakdown, making the tumor cell get stuck in metaphase.

D) It shrinks telomeres so that the tumor cells enter senescence.

C) It inhibits spindle fiber breakdown, making the tumor cell get stuck in metaphase.

Why has curing cancer been so elusive in biomedical research?

A) Few resources have been devoted to the cause.

B) Patients die before they can be studied.

C) This is a new field of research, and not enough time has passed to find the cure.

D) Cancer is not one disease, but a collection of different problems.

D) Cancer is not one disease, but a collection of different problems.

Cancer is often treated with radiation therapy, but we know radiation can cause cancer. Why doesn't the radiation harm the patient?

A) The radiation is aimed away from all healthy cells.

B) The DNA of healthy cells is protected by histones.

C) Healthy cells take DNA damage, but they are able to repair it.

D) The radiation therapy creates less harmful benign tumor cells that out-compete the cancer.

E) Patients take iodine pills which make them impervious to radiation damage.

C) Healthy cells take DNA damage, but they are able to repair it.

Comparing the human and chimp genomes, it appears that human chromosome 2 arose from the fusion of two ancestral primate chromosomes. What is the name for this kind of event?

A) mitotic catastrophe

B) duplication

C) Robertsonian translocation

D) reciprocal translocation

C) Robertsonian translocation

Ectopic recombination between direct repeats on a single chromosome would result in...

A) Robertsonian translocation

B) Deletion

C) Inversion

D) Reciprocal translocation

E) Duplication and deletion

B) Deletion

Which is an example of polyploidy?

A) seedless grapes

B) Down's Syndrome

C) Turner Syndrome

D) a mule

A) seedless grapes

If a tumor develops but does not affect the organism's health, it is best described as...

A) In remission

B) Malignant

C) Senescent

D) Benign

D) Benign

If telomeres shrink too much, which of the following is not a likely outcome?

A) senescence

B) mitotic catastrophe

C) Robertsonian translocation

D) entering G0

D) entering G0

In order to promote cancer, tumor suppressor genes must have a _____, and proto-oncogenes must have a _____.

A) Loss of function; gain of function

B) Translocation; inversion

C) Gain of function; loss of function

D) Loss of function; loss of function

A) Loss of function; gain of function

Loss of function mutations are usually...

A) Dominant

B) Malignant

C) Recessive

D) Homozygous

C) Recessive

Once a gene becomes duplicated, the second copy is less likely to...

A) Maintain its original function

B) Be duplicated again

C) Be deleted

D) Gain a new function

A) Maintain its original function

Why are the pseudoautosomal regions of sex chromosomes important?

A) They allow the sex chromosomes to bind spindle fibers in mitosis.

B) They stop the cell from recognizing sex chromosomes as foreign DNA.

C) They allow for synapsis, crossing over, and segregation of X and Y in meiosis.

D) They protect the gene-rich regions near the centromere of the sex chromosomes.

C) They allow for synapsis, crossing over, and segregation of X and Y in meiosis.

The icefish is a good example of evolutionary adaptation to the environment. Which adaptation did not contribute to the icefish's ability to survive in extremely cold waters?

A) absorbing oxygen through the skin

B) changing a digestive enzyme into an antifreeze protein

C) altered metabolism to produce warm-bloodedness

D) loss of red blood cells

C) altered metabolism to produce warm-bloodedness

A gene is found at chromosomal address 4p6. Where would you look for this gene?

A) the fourth band on the short arm of chromosome 6

B) the sixth band on the short arm of chromosome 4

C) the fourth band on the long arm of chromosome 6

D) the sixth band on the long arm of chromosome 4

B) the sixth band on the short arm of chromosome 4

What does it mean for an organism to be "true-breeding"?

A) The organism usually self-fertilizes.

B) The organism is homozygous.

C) The organism is heterozygous.

D) The organism cannot be successfully bred to another species.

B) The organism is homozygous.

Gregor Mendel selected traits well when studying pea plants. He chose traits that are diametrical and mutually exclusive. Traits that show these properties are usually...

A) homozygous

B) dominant

C) controlled by one gene

D) recessive

C) controlled by one gene

What is the consequence for a female who is heterozygous for a mutation to a gene on the X chromosome?

A) She will show only the dominant phenotype.

B) She will be a mosaic.

C) She will be unaffected.

D) She will show only the recessive phenotype.

B) She will be a mosaic.

What part of the genome was used to show that Genghis Khan is the most successfully breeding human in all of history?

A) Y chromosome

B) Mitochondrial DNA

C) Non-coding autosomal DNA

D) X chromosome

A) Y chromosome

What would be the most likely result if the M checkpoint did not function properly?

A) Polyploidy

B) Too many cells of that kind

C) Division with damaged DNA

D) Nondisjunction

D) Nondisjunction

Ectopic recombination between mispaired repeats on two homologous chromosomes would produce...

A) a deletion

B) an inversion

C) deletion and duplication

D) a reciprocal translocation

C) deletion and duplication

Pea flowers have a special part called the keel petal. Why was the keel petal important for Mendel's experiments?

A) It isolates the sex organs, making breeding predictable.

B) It is the only part of the flower that bears color.

C) It can be smooth or wrinkled, a trait that Mendel followed through many experiments.

D) It grows differently on male versus female pea plants.

A) It isolates the sex organs, making breeding predictable.

Which type of chromosome is most likely to undergo a Robertsonian translocation?

A) metacentric

B) X chromosome

C) acrocentric

D) Y chromosome

E) dicentric

C) acrocentric

Why is aneuploidy of the X chromosome not always fatal?

A) The problem only arises in parts of the mosaic female.

B) X-inactivation corrects most of the problem.

C) There are few genes on the X chromosome.

D) Additional gene products from X makes a hardier organism.

B) X-inactivation corrects most of the problem.

You are a physician treating a patient whose tumor has metastasized. Which will lilkely be the most effective method of treating their cancer?

A) surgery

B) radiation

C) chemotherapy

D) herbal remedies

C) chemotherapy

What would be the result of a cell acquiring a mutation that causes a loss of function of retinoblastoma protein (RB)?

A) The cell would lose its ability to stop the cell cycle to repair DNA.

B) The cell would divide before all kinetochores attach spindle fibers.

C) The cell would begin DNA replication even if no more cells are needed.

D) The cell would get stuck at metaphase.

C) The cell would begin DNA replication even if no more cells are needed.

You created a monoploid plant. What do you need to do to make it produce seeds?

A) Nothing. Let it grow.

B) Treat it with auxin.

C) Breed it with a 2n plant.

D) Treat it with colchicine.

D) Treat it with colchicine.

p53 is one of our most important tumor supressors. When DNA damage is sensed, p53 may do all of the following except...

A) Induce apoptosis

B) Lengthen telomeres

C) Arrest the cell cycle

D) Inhibit angiogenesis

E) Inhibit metastasis

B) Lengthen telomeres

The important cell cycle regulator separase has the function of...

A) activating APC/C

B) cutting cohesins

C) binding to kinetochores

D) ubiquitinating proteins

B) cutting cohesins

Match the cell cycle regulation gene (E2F) to the checkpoint that it most directly regulates.

apoptosis

G1 checkpoint

G2

M checkpoint

G1 checkpoint

Match the cell cycle regulation gene (Securin) to the checkpoint that it most directly regulates.

apoptosis

G1 checkpoint

G2

M checkpoint

M checkpoint

Match the cell cycle regulation gene (Bcl2) to the checkpoint that it most directly regulates.

apoptosis

G1 checkpoint

G2

M checkpoint

apoptosis

Match the cell cycle regulation gene (p53) to the checkpoint that it most directly regulates.

apoptosis

G1 checkpoint

G2

M checkpoint

G2

Several genes that regulate the cell cycle exist as pairs that work together, one being the active enzyme, the other being an inhibitor protein. Give examples of two pairs, stating the names of the enzyme and its inhibitor AND explain the normal function of each enzyme protein named.

1. p53 is inhibited by Mdm2. p53 pauses the cell cycle in response to DNA damage.

2. RB inhibits E2F. E2F turns on expression of genes that copy the DNA.

3. Securin inhibits separase. Separase cuts cohesins to initiate anaphase.

The Sanger method relies on specially-modified nucleotides. How are these different from normal nucleotides?

A) The 3' OH is missing from ribose.

B) They only have one phosphate instead of three.

C) They use a nitrogenous base not found in nature.

D)The 5' carbon is missing from ribose.

E) The oxygen is missing from carbon 2 on ribose.

A) The 3' OH is missing from ribose.

A certain protein called _____ acts like a protein glue and holds the sister chromatids together during metaphase of mitosis.

A) tubulin

B) separase

C) actin

D) cohesin

E) ligase

D) cohesin

A particular recognition sequence for a restriction enzyme contains six base pairs. Given the first three bases, complete the following palindromic recognition sequence. 5'-TAG_,_,_-3'

A) 5'-TAG-3'

B) 5'-GAT-3'

C) 5'-CAT-3'

D) 5'-CTA-3'

E) 5'-ATC-3'

D) 5'-CTA-3'

A scientist is using genetic engineering to get bacteria to synthesize human insulin. They are putting the insulin gene into a plasmid that will be used to transfect bacteria. Which enzyme is needed to make it such that the insulin gene stays joined to the plasmid so it does not fall apart?

A) ligase

B) DNA pol I

C) DNA pol III

D) helicase

A) ligase

A restriction enzyme recognizes the following sequence and cuts at the arrow. What type of ends would the resulting molecules have? 5'-CCTAG↓G-3'

A) Blunt ends

B) Sticky 3' overhang

C) Sticky 5' overhang

D) Sticky no overhang

B) Sticky 3' overhang

Consider the biochemical pathway below.

A --1-> B --2->C --3-> D --4-> E

With respect to enzyme 2, molecule C is its _____.

A) metabolite

B) homolog

C) intermediate

D) cofactor

A) metabolite

DNA polymerase occasionally makes mistakes when copying the genome. What is the most common outcome of these errors.

A) The cell undergoes apoptosis.

B) The polymerase makes an extra copy of the erroneous chromosome.

C) The polymerase proofreads its work, and corrects the mistake.

D) The cell acquires a new mutation.

C) The polymerase proofreads its work, and corrects the mistake.

During cytokinesis, a special actin microfilament forms around the equator of the cell. What can be found at the place where the two ends of this fiber overlap?

A) Cohesins

B) Chromosomes

C) Kinetochores

D) Motor proteins

E) Centrosome

D) Motor proteins

Erwin Chargaff studied nitrogenous base ratios in a variety of species. If he found that 18% of bases in a hamster were adenine, what percentage of the bases would guanine comprise?

A) 18%

B) 32%

C) 36%

D) 42%

B) 32%

From where does the chemical energy come to form a phosphodiester bond?

A) the ribose sugar

B) the nitrogenous base

C) the triphosphate group

D) glucose

C) the triphosphate group

You are watching a meiocyte do meiosis through a microscope. As the cell approaches metaphase I, how many chromatids would you expect to see grouped together at each site on the metaphase plate?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

D) 4

In metaphase, spindle fibers attach directly to the _____.

A) Condensins

B) Telomere DNA

C) Centromere DNA

D) Kinetochore

D) Kinetochore

In which part of the cell cycle does a somatic cell spend the most time?

A) interphase

B) prophase

C) metaphase

D) anaphase

E) telophase

A) interphase

Meiosis of a spermatocyte will result in _____ viable sperm cell(s), and meiosis of an oocyte will result in _____ viable egg cell(s).

A) 4; 4

B) 4; 1

C) 4; 2

D) 1; 4

B) 4; 1

Part of a gene contains the sequence 5'-GTATGCC-3'. What would be the sequence of the RNA that is transcribed from this DNA?

A) 5'-GGCAUAC-3'

B) 5'-CATACGG-3'

C) 5'-GGCUTUC-3'

D) 5'-GGCATAC-3'

E) 5'-CAUACGG-3'

A) 5'-GGCAUAC-3'

Aster spindle fibers are one of three classes of spindle fibers, which have a very specific job. What is the function of this type of spindle fiber?

A) To pull the chromatids to the two poles in anaphase

B) To push against other spindle fibers, elongating the cell

C) To attach to cellular organelles, ensuring their delivery to daughter cells

D) To anchor the centrosome to the cytoskeleton/cell membrane

D) To anchor the centrosome to the cytoskeleton/cell membrane

Sometimes mature cells will leave the cell cycle and enter this subphase, which could be compared to a parking lot. Cells like liver cells can leave this subphase and begin dividing again, while cells like neurons cannot.

A) G1

B) S

C) G0

D) G2

C) G0

The famous Photo 51, created by Rosalind Franklin and shown to James Watson by Maurice Wilkins, revealed all of the following characteristics of DNA except...

A) It is a double helix.

B) The spacing between base pairs is 3.4 angstroms.

C) The helix has uniform width.

D) Adenine pairs with thymine; cytosine pairs with guanine.

E) The sugar-phosphate backbone is on the outside.

D) Adenine pairs with thymine; cytosine pairs with guanine.

The part of a chromosome where the two chromatids are held most closely together is called the _____. This is the division point for the two arms of the chromosome and is near where the spindle fibers attach.

A) centromere

B) centriole

C) centrosome

D) centroid

A) centromere

The phosphodiester bonds that hold all the nucleotides of one strand of DNA together are _____ bonds, while the bonds between the bases that hold the two strands of the double helix together are _____ bonds.

A) covalent; ionic

B) ionic; covalent

C) hydrogen; covalent

D) covalent; hydrogen

D) covalent; hydrogen

This type of cell would be likely to have a haploid number of chromosomes.

A) meiocyte

B) gamete

C) somatic cell

D) zygote

B) gamete

What is the most important event that takes place in the S phase of the cell cycle?

A) synapsis

B) DNA replication

C) senescence

D) crossovers

B) DNA replication