Microbio Homework Sets for Exam 4

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Last updated 5:07 PM on 4/24/26
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116 Terms

1
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Which of the following may be members of the holobiont?

D) all of these may be members of the holobiont at some point- so pathogens, transient microbes, and resident microbes

<p>D) all of these may be members of the holobiont at some point- so pathogens, transient microbes, and resident microbes</p>
2
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Colonization will result in infection and disease if any pathogenic microbes are present

False

<p>False</p>
3
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You may not always know you have been colonized by a microbe, but you will always know if it proceeds to an infection.

False

<p>False</p>
4
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Which of the following may be the result of colonization with a pathogenic microbe? Check all that apply

The pathogen does not attach to the host well and is cleared by the host.

The pathogen may multiply and cause infection, leading to possible death.

The pathogen may reside as part of the resident microbiota in low numbers.

<p>The pathogen does not attach to the host well and is cleared by the host.</p><p>The pathogen may multiply and cause infection, leading to possible death.</p><p>The pathogen may reside as part of the resident microbiota in low numbers.</p>
5
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The best descriptive term for the resident microbiota is

mutualistic

6
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When the resident microbiota prevents the establishment of a pathogen, it is called

microbial antagonism

7
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choose the correct terms for each lettered box to complete the concept map describing the two areas of the respiratory tract and the diseases that can occur in each.

A. upper

B. lower

C. mouth

D. nose

E. pharynx

F. larynx

G. trachea

H. bronchioles

I. colds

J. pharyngitis

K. otitis media

L. tuberculosis

M. pneumonia

<p>A. upper</p><p>B. lower</p><p>C. mouth</p><p>D. nose</p><p>E. pharynx</p><p>F. larynx</p><p>G. trachea</p><p>H. bronchioles</p><p>I. colds</p><p>J. pharyngitis</p><p>K. otitis media</p><p>L. tuberculosis</p><p>M. pneumonia</p>
8
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The normal biota of the GI tract is most diverse in the

large intestine

9
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Testes

produce sperm and hormones

10
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Epididymis

coiled tube leading out of the testes

11
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Urethra

carries urine and sperm to the exterior of the body

12
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prostate gland

produces seminal fluid

13
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Which of the following bacteria is known to produce substances that lower the local pH?

Lactobacillus

14
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Which part of the urinary tract has the most abundant and diverse microbiome?

lower urethra

15
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Localized Infection

microbes enter the body and remain confined to a specific tissue

16
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Systemic Infection

Infection spreads to several sites and tissue fluids and may travel via nerves and CSF

17
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Focal Infection

The infectious agent spread to other tissues from a local site

18
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Mixed Infection

Several microbes establish themselves simultaneously at the infection site

19
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Primary infection

the initial infection

20
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Secondary Infection

An example is influenza comlicated by pneumonia

21
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Acute Infection

Infection comes on rapidly, with severe but short-lived effects

22
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Chronic Infection

Infection that persists over a long period of time (ex. HIV)

23
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Direct contact

syphillis from unprotected sex

24
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biological vector

lyme disease

25
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vehicle

salmonellosis from egg salad at a picnic

26
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Droplet

chicken pox from one child coughing on another

27
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Parenteral

Hepatitis B from needle sharing

28
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Healthcare-associated

MRSA

29
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This person had hepatitis A and recovered from the illness. However, individuals continue to harbor the virus for several years. If this individual does not practice appropriate safety measures at a job, patrons of the restaurant may become ill. This individual would then represent a

chronic carrier

30
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What type of potential transmission is depicted by this picture?

fomite

<p>fomite</p>
31
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Properly order the four stages of clinical infection

1. incubation period

2. prodromal stage

3. acute phase

4. convalescent period

32
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The ___ is the time between an encounter with a pathogen and the first symptoms.

incubation period

33
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The statements below describe the process of phagocytosis. Put them in the correct order in which they occur

1. Phagocytes release chemicals that attract the pathogens.

2. PRRs on host phagocytes bind to PAMPS on microbes.

3. Endocytosis is initiated forming a phagosome

4. A lysosome fuses with the phagosome forming a phagolysosome

5. Digestion proceeds as hydrolytic enzymes break down the cells

6. The residual cell debris is expelled from the cell by exocytosis.

34
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Order the following choices to reflect the stages of phagocytosis, from the first step to the last step.

1. Chemotaxis

2. Formation of phagosome

3. formation of phagolysosome

4. killing and digestion of microbe

5. exocytosis of debris

35
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Mitochondria contain hydrolytic enzymes.

True or False

False

36
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__ are the precursors to macrophages.

monocytes

37
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Which cell type is capable of phagocytosis?

neutrophils and macrophages

38
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Phagocytosis is part of the body's nonspecific defenses.

True or False.

True

39
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The complement system is part of the specific immune response.

True or False.

False

40
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Phagocytes are attracted by all of the following EXCEPT

enzymes released by lysosomes

41
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True or False. Complement factor C3b coats a bacterium and binds to C3b receptors on phagocytes, making the bacterium more susceptible to being phagocytized.

True

42
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A __ contains hydrolytic enzymes to digest foreign bacteria.

lysosome

43
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In phagocytosis, the digested contents are eliminated by

exocytosis

44
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Approximately how long does it take for the contents of the phagolysosome to kill engulfed bacteria?

30 minutes

45
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Phagocytosis exhibits a memory response similar to specific immunity.

False

46
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Place the steps in the correct order to assess your understanding of the inflammatory reaction.

injury/immediate release

vascular reactions

edema and pus formation

resolution/scar formation

<p>injury/immediate release</p><p>vascular reactions</p><p>edema and pus formation</p><p>resolution/scar formation</p>
47
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Injury Response

immediate vasoconstriction and release of chemical mediators

48
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Vascular Reactions

Vasodilation with increased blood flow, vascular permeability, and fluid leakage

49
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Edema

infiltration of site by neutrophils, resulting in pus formation

50
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resolution and scar formation

repair of the tissues

51
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Diapedesis

migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues

52
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The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all of the following except

chills

53
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All of the following are events of early inflammation except

macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis

54
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Which of the following is incorrect about inflammation?

Pyrogens cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability.

55
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Which of the following is mismatched in relation to inflammation?

Tumor-cancer

56
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Which of the following is not a chief function of inflammation?

cause a fever

57
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The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are

pyrogens

58
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A person will typically experience the sensation of __ when fever is starting to occur in the body.

chills

59
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Each of the following are benfits of fever except

it increases the availability of iron

60
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You cut your finger dicing chicken for dinner. Which of the following is not a source of chemicals that stimulate the inflammatory response that results from the injury?

Antibody-producing plasma cells

61
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Choose the correct term for each lettered box to complete the concept map.

A. inflammation

B. fever

C. neutrophils

D. monocytes

E. macrophages

F. leukocytes

G. lymphocytes

H. antibodies

<p>A. inflammation</p><p>B. fever</p><p>C. neutrophils</p><p>D. monocytes</p><p>E. macrophages</p><p>F. leukocytes</p><p>G. lymphocytes</p><p>H. antibodies</p>
62
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Label the image to review the primary physical and chemical defense barriers in the human body.

knowt flashcard image
63
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Classify the terms to the correct category to review examples of inflammatory mediators and other cytokines.

Pro-inflammatory cytokines

- tumor necrosis factor(TNF)

- interleukin (IL) 1

Vasoactive Mediators

- histamine

- serotonin

Regulate Lymphocyte Growth and Activity

- Interleukin-7

- Erythropoietin

64
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Label this infographic to test your understanding of the development of cells and cell products that compromise the host defense system.

knowt flashcard image
65
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Bloodstream

carries red and white blood cells, many different chemicals produced by the liver, and antibodies

66
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Mononuclear phagocyte system

support network of connective tissue fibers that provide a passageway within and between tissues and organs

67
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Lymphatic System

Compartmentalized network of vessels, cells, and specialized accessory organs that house aggregates of lymphocytes.

68
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Extracellular fluid

fluid that fills the spaces surrounding tissue cells

69
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Neutrophils

main phagocytes in circulation

70
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Basophiles

parallel eosinophil function by being involved in inflammation and allergic reactions

71
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Monocytes

Phagocytic cells that leave circulation and differentiate into macrophages

72
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Natural killer cells

display no antigen specificity but are active against tumor and virally infected cells

73
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A microorganism carries __ markers and a B cell carries __ markers.

nonself; self

74
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Which of the following cells are lymphocytes?

B cells

75
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Label the image to test your understanding of antibody structure.

knowt flashcard image
76
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Choose the correct terms for each lettered box to complete this concept map describing lymphocyte specificity and activation.

A. B lymphocyte

B. T lymphocyte

C. memory B cell

D. plasma cell

E. antibodies

F. T helper cell

G. interleukins

H. cytotoxic T cell

I. memory T cell

<p>A. B lymphocyte</p><p>B. T lymphocyte</p><p>C. memory B cell</p><p>D. plasma cell</p><p>E. antibodies</p><p>F. T helper cell</p><p>G. interleukins</p><p>H. cytotoxic T cell</p><p>I. memory T cell</p>
77
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Complete the sentences to review the processe of T-cell activation.

T-cell activation begins when a/n APC presents an antigen fragment in association with an MHC-II molecule to a CD4 helper T cell. Once activated, helper T cells can differentiate into T helper 1 cells which will activate phagocytic cells and secretes IL-2 to help activate cell-mediated immunity. CD4 helper T cells may also differentiate into T helper 2 cells for B-cell activation, or T helper 17 or T regulatory cells for modulation of the inflammatory response. An APC may also activate a CD8 T cell when the antigen is complexed with MHC-I . These CD8 cells are called cytotoxic T cells. Activated CD8 cells will mount a direct attack on target cells through the action of perforins , which punch holes in membranes, and granzymes , which then enter through these passageways.

78
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Fab

the two arms that bind to antigen

79
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Fc

part of the antibody involved in binding to various cells and molecules of the immune response

80
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Hinge Region

region between Fab and Fc that allows swiveling of the Fab

81
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Complement binding site

site within Fc region

82
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Disulfide bonds

holds polypeptide chains together

83
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Opsonization

coating of microbe with antibody to enhance phagocytosis

84
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Neutralization

antibodies fill the surface receptors on microbes to prevent its attachment to the host

85
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Antitoxin

antibody that neutralizes bacterial exotoxins

86
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Agglutination

crosslinkage of cells or particles into large clumps

87
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IgG

most prevalent antibody in circulation

88
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IgA

dimer that is a significant component of mucus and secretions

89
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IgM

pentameric in circulation

90
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IgD

main function is to serve as antigen receptor on B cell surface

91
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IgE

mediates allergic responses

92
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__ are molecules that stimulate a response by T-cells and B-cells.

Antigens

93
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Surface receptors on immune system cells function in

identification of self/non-self

cell development

communication

94
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T-cells

stimulate B-cells and other T-cells

95
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Which of the following cells can be a target for cytotoxic T-cells?

viral-infected cells, transplanted cells, and cancer cells

96
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In addition to apoptosis of infected host cells, apoptosis of lymphocytes also occurs during embryonic development.

True

97
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In addition to perforins, which chemical(s) is/are also secreted by cytotoxic T-cells?

granzymes

98
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A person deficient in cytotoxic T-cells may be more susceptible to cancer.

True

99
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An individual antibody is made against

one epitope on the cell

100
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Many different antibodies can be made against a single antigen

True