a&p II lecture exam 4

refer to the diagram of the male reproductive system. which structure produces most of the volume of the semen?:

a. a

b. b

c. c

d. d

b. b

which of the following cell types are responsible for secreting testosterone in the testes?:

a. spermatogenic cells

b. sustenacular cells

c. myloid cells

d. intersitital cells

d. intersitital cells

which of the following events increases genetic diversity by randomly selecting whether the paternal or maternal chromosome will enter the gamete?:

a. random alignment of chromosomes during metaphase I

b. crossing over between homologous chromosomes during prophase I

c. separation of homologous chromosomes during anaphase I

d. separation of sister chromatids during anaphase II

a. random alignment of chromosomes during metaphase I

gonadal arteries (testicular arteries in male and ovarian arteries in female) arises from which blood vessel?:

a. abdominal aorta

b. ascending aorta

c. inferior vena cava

d. testes and ovaries are not supplied by arteries

a. abdominal aorta

what is the end result of meiosis Il?:

a. two diploid daughter cells that is genetically identical to the parent cell and each other

b. two haploid daughter cells that is genetically identical to the parent cell but not to each other

c. four diploid daughter cells that is genetically distinct to the parent cell and each other

d. four haploid daughter cells that is genetically distinct to the parent cell and each other

d. four haploid daughter cells that is genetically distinct to the parent cell and each other

which of the following is the correct order of sperm flow through the male reproductive system?:

a. epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, prostatic urethra, spongy urethra

b. epididymis, spongy urethra, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, external urethral orifice

c. spongy urethra, testes, ejaculatory duct, ductus deferens, prostatic urethra

d. prostatic urethra, ejaculatory duct, epididymis, ureter, ductus deferens

a. epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, prostatic urethra, spongy urethra

spina bifida results from which of the following developmental process failing to complete properly?:

a. primitive streak ingression

b. somite division

c. neural tube closure

d. notochord formation

c. neural tube closure

which of the following developments first occurs in the fetus at the 5th month of pregnancy?:

a. hair growth on the head and body skin

b. first onset of ossification

c. audible heartbeat

d. bone marrow start producing blood cells

a. hair growth on the head and body skin

which of the following adult structure is derived from (developed from) the allantois?:

a. large intestines

b. gonads

c. kidneys

d. urinary bladder

d. urinary bladder

most of the skeletal muscles are derived (formed) from which of the following germ layer?:

a. ectoderm

b. mesoderm

c. endoderm

d. neural crest cells

b. mesoderm

which of the following is the most effective form of birth control?:

a. oral contraceptives

b. intrauterine system

c. abstinence

d. coitus interruptus

c. abstinence

cells divide by ______ during cleavage:

a. meiosis I

b. meiosis II

c. mitosis

c. mitosis

during which trimester of pregnancy do women most often experience morning sickness?:

a. first

b. second

c. third

a. first

the spacialized organelle known as acrosome allows the sperm to pass through which layer of the oocyte?:

a. corona radiata

b. thecal cells

c. corpus luteum

d. corpus albicens

a. corona radiata

where do the cells that form the three embryonic germ layers come from?:

a. epiblast

b. hypoblast

c. syncytiotrophoblast

d. yolk sac

a. epiblast

which of the following is true regarding the placenta?:

a. it is made entirely of maternal cells.

b. its primary function is supplying the embryo with oxygen and nutrients.

c. it is shed before childbirth.

d. it develops from the mesoderm germ layer.

b. its primary function is supplying the embryo with oxygen and nutrients.

during pregnancy, the calcium level in maternal blood is elevated. this is achieved by which of the following hormone?:

a. prolactin

b. calcitonin

c. parathyroid hormone

c. parathyroid hormone

the dorsal-most germ layer of the developing embryo is known as the _____:

a. hypoblast

b. ectoderm

c. mesoderm

d. endoderm

b. ectoderm

gonads:

testes and ovaries, produce gametes (sperm/eggs), secrete s** hormones, and remain dormant until puberty.

initiation of puberty:

triggered when the hypothalamus begins secreting gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

target cells:

GnRH travels to the anterior pituitary gland, which releases FSH and LH to stimulate the gonads

chromosomes:

human somatic cells have 46 chromosomes (23 pairs), including 1 pair of s** chromosomes. gametes contain 23 chromosomes (haploid) to ensure the offspring has the correct diploid number (46)

process of meiosis (meiosis I):

homologous chromosomes pair up to form a tetrad and exchange genetic material (crossing over). results in two haploid daughter cells with replicated chromosomes.

process of meiosis (meiosis II):

sister chromatids are pulled apart during anaphase II.

process of meiosis (end result):

four haploid daughter cells

interphase:

occurs only prior to meiosis and it does not occur between meiosis I and II

female reproductive system (ogenesis):

primary oocytes are arrested in prophase I throughout childhood.

female reproductive system (secondary oocytes):

they are arrested in metaphase II and only complete meiosis if fertilized. only one secondary oocyte typically develops from each primary oocyte.

female reproductive system (ovarian cycle):

follows the order of follicular, ovulation, luteal

female reproductive system (ovulation):

induced by a peak in luteinizing hormone (LH), typically on day 14

female reproductive system (luteal phase):

occurs on days 15–28

anatomy & fertilization (uterine tube):

order from ovary to uterus is infundibulum, ampulla, isthmus, uterine part

anatomy & fertilization (fertilization):

typically occurs in the ampulla of the uterine tube

anatomy & fertilization (lactation):

prolactin stimulates milk production in the alveoli and oxytocin is responsible for milk ejection

male reproductive system & development (sperm production:

compared to ovaries, the testes produce more gametes that are smaller in size

male reproductive system & development (hormones):

in males LH stimulates interstitial cells to secrete testosterone

male reproductive system & development (storage):

spermatozoa are stored in the epididymis until fully mature

male reproductive system & development (s** determination genetic s**):

determined by chromosomes (XX or XY)

male reproductive system & development (phenotypic s**):

the appearance of external genitalia

male reproductive system & development (SRY gene):

located on the y chromosome and stimulates androgen synthesis for male phenotype development

male reproductive system & development (ducts):

AMH (anti-mullerian hormone) causes paramesonephric ducts to degenerate in males. in females, the genital tubercle becomes the clitoris

periods of development (pre-embryonic):

first 2 weeks and ends when the blastocyst implants in the uterus

periods of development (embryonic):

weeks 3 through 8. this is when teratogens (harmful agents) are most damaging as organ systems undergo peak development.

periods of development (fetal):

week 9 until birth approx. 29 weeks duration and the embryo becomes a fetus during the first trimester

fertilization:

restores the diploid number of chromosomes and the oocyte releases chemotaxic signals to attract sperm

capacitation:

a process lasting several hours that removes proteins from the surface of the sperm so it can penetrate the egg

cleavage:

aseries of mitotic divisions where the cell number increases but the overall size of the conceptus remains the same

blastocyst:

consists of a trophoblast (outer ring/periphery) and an embryoblast (inner cell mass)

placenta:

fetal portion forms chorionic villi. blood-borne viruses are more likely to cross the placenta than large multicellular parasites

hormonal control:

high levels of estrogen and progesterone from the placenta inhibit FSH and LH to prevent new follicle development during pregnancy

trimesters:

the second trimester covers months 4–6

penetrance:

the percentage of individuals with a specific genotype who actually exhibit the associated phenotype (pancreatitis)

fetal alcohol syndrome:

a developmental disorder where alcohol alters the expression of genes in the fetus rather than changing the DNA base-pair sequence

match the organs with their common function:

1. covering and protection:
   _________________________

2. secrete lubricant
   ________________________

3. stimulate sexual arousal
   _______________________

1. labia majora and scrotum & 2. vestibular and bulbourethral glands & 3. clitoris and glans of penis

puberty is initiated when the hypothalamus significantly increases secretion of:

a. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).

b. luteinizing hormone (LH).

c. gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH).

c. gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

the internal organs of the female reproductive system include the:

a. ovaries, uterine tubes, uterus, and labia.

b. ovaries, uterine tubes, uterus, and ureters.

c. ovaries, uterine tubes, uterus, and vagina.

d. ovaries, urethra, uterine tubes, and vagina.

c. ovaries, uterine tubes, uterus, and vagina

each ovary is attached to the uterus by the ____________ ligament and is held in place by the ___________ ligament:

a. ovarian; suspensory

b. suspensory; uterine

c. suspensory; ovarian

d. ovarian; falciform

a. ovarian; suspensory

which region of the uterine tube is the normal site of fertilization?:

a. the intramural part

b. the infundibulum

c. the isthmus

d. the ampulla

d. the ampulla

which of the following is found in the cortex of the ovary?:

a. the ovulated oocytes

b. the tunica albuginea

c. the endometrium

d. the ovarian follicles

d. the ovarian follicles

which of the following are produced by the gonads?:

a. gametes

b. sex hormones

c. accessory reproductive organs

d. coitus

a, b

mitosis involves:

a. a single cell division and results in two diploid cells.

b. two cell divisions and results in two diploid cells.

c. a single cell division and results in four diploid cells.

d. two cell divisions and results in two haploid cells.

a. a single cell division and results in two diploid cells

completion of meiosis produces:

a. four diploid daughter cells.

b. four haploid daughter cells.

c. two diploid and two haploid daughter cells.

d. two haploid daughter cells

b. four haploid daughter cells

how many cells are formed in meiosis?:

a. 1

b. 4

c. 3

d. 2

b. 4

which of the following events occur during prophase I?:

a. breakdown of nuclear envelope

b. condensation of chromosomes

c. movement of centrosomes

d. breakdown of nuclear envelope and condensation of chromosomes

e. breakdown of nuclear envelope, condensation of chromosomes, and movement of centromeres

e. breakdown of nuclear envelope, condensation of chromosomes, and movement of centromeres

which of the following events occur during anaphase I?:

a. separation of homologous chromosomes

b. formation of synaptonemal complex

c. lengthening of kinetochore microtubules

d. separation of homologous chromosomes and formation of synaptonemal complex

a. separation of homologous chromosomes

the spindle apparatus is fully formed by the end of:

a. metaphase Il

b. anaphase II

c. prophase lI

d. prometaphase II

e. telophase II

d. prometaphase II

at the end of meiosis Il, there are:

a. two haploid cells, with each chromosome containing two sister chromatids.

b. two haploid cells, with each chromosome consisting of a single chromatid.

c. four haploid cells, with each chromosome containing two sister chromatids.

d. four haploid cells, with each chromosome consisting of a single chromatid.

e. four diploid cells, with each chromosome consisting of a single chromatid.

d. four haploid cells, with each chromosome consisting of a single chromatid.

a crossover in meiosis is an exchange of genetic material between:

a. sister chromatids of the same chromosome.

b. sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.

c. sister chromatids of nonhomologous chromosomes.

d. non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.

e. non-sister chromatids of nonhomologous chromosomes.

d. non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.

gonadotropin releasing hormone is released by the:

a. hypothalamus.

b. anterior pituitary.

c. thalamus.

d. posterior pituitary.

a. hypothalamus

which hormone prevents degeneration of the corpus luteum?:

a. human chorionic gonadotropin

b. estrogen

c. follicle stimulating hormone

d. luteinizing hormone

a. human chorionic gonadotropin

when does a mature oocyte complete meiosis I?:

a. just after ovulation

b. approximately 2 weeks prior to ovulation

c. approximately 2 weeks after ovulation

d. just prior to ovulation

d. just prior to ovulation

which cells produce testosterone?:

a. interstitial cells

b. spermatids

c. sustentacular cells

d. spermatogonia

a. interstitial cells

which duct(s) of the male reproductive system pass(es) through the prostate gland?:

a. duct of seminal vesicle

b. ejaculatory ducts

c. efferent ductules

d. vas deferens

b. ejaculatory ducts

which part of the penis has the external urethral orifice?:

a. crus

b. glans

c. corpus cavernosum

d. bulb

b. glans

which of the following is an accessory reproductive gland in the male?:

a. testis

b. epididymis

c. prostate

d. penis

c. prostate

what is the name of the germ cell from which sperm arise?:

a. spermatogonia

b. spermatids

c. sustentacular cells

d. interstitial cells

a. spermatogonia

sperm cells reach maturity in the:

a. epididymis.

b. vas deferens.

c. testes.

d. seminal vesicle.

a. epididymis

match the type of sex development with its description:

1. appearance of genitalia
   _________________

2. sex based on chromosomes
   ______________

1. phenotypic sex & 2. genotypic sex

name the correct sequence of events in the embryonic development of internal female reproductive organs:

a. no SRY proteins are produced

b. mesonephric ducts degenerate

c. urogenital sinus forms inferior part of vagina, urinary bladder, and urethra

d. aramesonephric ducts develop to form uterine tubes (separated) and uterus (fused) and superior part of vagina

a. 1 & b. 2 & c. 4 & d. 3

what are the primordial (embryologic) structures that form the external genitalia of both reproductive systems?:

a. labioscrotal swellings

b. gubernaculum

c. genital tubercle

d. urogenital folds

a, c, d

which are common developmental events that occur during puberty?:

a. appearance of pubic and axillary hair

b. growth in testicles, penis, and facial hair in genetic males

c. breast bud development in genetic males

d. menarche in genetic females

a, b, d

the gonads:

a. are the testes and ovaries.

b. secrete sex hormones.

c. produce gametes.

d. are dormant until puberty.

e. all of the choices are correct.

e. all of the choices are correct

interphase occurs:

a. between prophase I and prophase II.

b. between meiosis I and meiosis II.

c. between telophase Il and cytokinesis.

d. prior to meiosis.

e. between anaphase I and telophase I.

d. prior to meiosis

human somatic cells contain only one pair of:

a. sex chromosomes.

b. chromosomes.

c. homologous chromosomes.

d. autosomes.

a. sex chromosomes

when homologous replicated chromosomes pair up during meiosis, they form a:

a. single-stranded chromosome.

b. centromere.

c. sister chromatid.

d. tetrad.

d. tetrad

although the length of the menstrual cycle varies, menstruation consistently occurs 14 days after ovulation, and thus the _____________ phase is constant in length:

a. proliferative

b. secretory

c. follicular

d. menstrual

b. secretory

how many secondary oocytes ultimately develop from each primary oocyte?:

a. 2

b. 1

c. 3

d. 5

e. 4

b. 1

progesterone levels are highest during the ___________ phase of the ovarian cycle:

a. luteal

b. ovulation

c. proliferative

d. menstrual

e. follicular

a. luteal

the external os is the:

a. opening of the cervix into the vagina.

b. uterine tube attachment site.

c. inferior portion of the central cavity.

d. bone that supports the uterus during pregnancy.

e. primary suspensory ligament for the uterus.

a. opening of the cervix into the vagina

which does not provide structural support for the uterus?:

a. uterosacral ligament

b. uterine ligament

c. muscles of pelvic floor

d. round ligament

r. cardinal ligament

b. uterine ligament

the secretory phase of the uterine cycle coincides with:

a. proliferation.

b. ovulation.

c. the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle.

d. menstruation.

e. the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle.

c. the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle

the lateral margin of the uterine tube, which bears the fimbriae, is called the:

a. fornix.

b. uterine part.

c. isthmus.

d. ampulla.

e. infundibulum.

e. infundibulum

which structure is derived from the peritoneum of the abdominal cavity?:

a. tunica vaginalis

b. tunica albuginea

c. perineal raphe

d. mediastinum testis

e. spermatic cord

a. tunica vaginalis

the rete testis:

a. receives sperm from the seminiferous tubules.

b. is the nerve plexus that supplies the testis.

c. is a venous network that cools the arterial blood traveling to the testis.

d. transports seminal fluid to the efferent ductules.

e. is the site of spermiogenesis.

a. receives sperm from the seminiferous tubules

during orgasm, the ductus deferens undergoes:

a. segmentation, and the external urethral sphincter becomes engorged with blood.

b. peristalsis, and the internal urethral sphincter of the bladder contracts.

c. segmentation, and the external urethral sphincter contracts.

d. peristalsis, and the internal urethral sphincter of the bladder relaxes.

b. peristalsis, and the internal urethral sphincter of the bladder contracts.

the external urethral orifice is found at the ___________  of the penis:

a. corpus cavernosum

b. glans

c. body

d. crus

e. bulb

b. glans

the function of the dartos and cremaster muscles is to:

a. move sperm along the ductus deferens.

b. attach the penis to the body wall.

c. produce erections.

d. help the testes descend into the scrotum prior to birth.

e. regulate the temperature of the testes.

e. regulate the temperature of the testes

which of the male accessory glands encircles the urethra?:

a. cowper's gland

b. bulbourethral gland

c. prostate gland

d. urethral gland

e. seminal vesicle

c. prostate gland

paramesonephric ducts degenerate when the hormone ________ is present:

a. testosterone

b. AMH

c. inhibin

d. TSH

e. estrogen

b. AMH

when an individual in their fifth decade of life is not pregnant and has stopped having menstrual cycles for ____________, they are said to be in menopause:

a. 1 year

b. 4 months

c. 6 months

d. 2 months

e. 18 months

a. 1 year