Active Care Exam I

Pecs, Anterior deltoid, Upper trapezius, Scalenes, and levator scapulae

What muscles are tight or facilitated (uninhibited) in an upper cross syndrome?

Lower trapezius, Serratus anterior, Longus colli, and longus capitus

What muscles are weak or inhibited in an upper cross syndrome?

Tight (facilitated)

The IT band, lateral hamstring, and psoas muscles are ____________________ in a lower cross syndrome.

Gluteus medius, gluteus maximus, and abdominals

What muscles are weak/inhibited in a lower cross syndrome?

Glenohumeral, upper cervicals, ankle and T spine

What joints are prone to mobility restrictions, making them hypomobile?

Foot, knee, lumbars, and mid-lower cervicals

What joints are prone to stability restrictions, making them hypermobile?

Control

The primary goal of rehabilitation in muscle movement is to retrain what?

Stretch

We want to ___________ facilitated/tight muscles.

Strengthen

We want to ____________ weak/inhibited muscles.

Serratus anterior

What is the agonist for protraction of the scapula?

Rhomboids

What is the antagonist for protraction of the scapula?

Latissimus dorsi

What is the agonist for adduction of the humerus?

Middle deltoid (look at brightspace in content, there's like 300 agonist/antagonist questions)

What is the antagonist for adduction of the humerus?

Analgesic response

The acute increase in range of motion during passive stretching is due to what?

Stretch induced strength loss

What is it called when a muscle can't contract as powerfully due to loose muscle tissue, and an inhibition of maximal force?

False

T/F- You should stretch during DOMS (delayed onset muscle soreness).

True

T/F- You should avoid stretching after high intensity or strength training sessions.

Contract-relax

Which stretching method would you find the point of tension, hold the stretch for 10-12 seconds, and the the patient would contract the stretched muscle against your resistance to neutral, and then relax. And then you would repeat the process?

Hold-relax

Which stretching method would the doctor find the point of tension, and then the patient would engage isometric contraction (not moving positions), and then relax?

CRAC (contract-relax-agonist contract)

Which stretching method consists of the doctor finding the point of tension, the patient then engaging isometric contraction of the stretched muscle, then relaxing, and then the patient activates the apposing muscle to increase the stretch?

Irradiation

With regards to PNF (proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation) what is the spread of excitation in the CNS that causes contraction of the synergistic muscles?

Rhythmic stabilization

What facilitation technique consists of alternating between isometric actions of the agonist and antagonist muscles?

Antagonist

In rhythmic stabilization, contraction should occur in which muscle first?

Slow reversal

Which facilitation technique consists of concentric action of the antagonist, followed by concentric action of the agonist?

1st class

What class of lever has the fulcrum between the resistance and the force arm?

Cervical extension

What is an example of a 1st class lever within the body?

2nd class

What class of lever has the resistance between the force and the fulcrum, and allows you to move a large resistance with a little force? (Think wheelbarrow)

Calf raises (or pushups)

What is an example of a 2nd class lever within the body?

3rd class

What class of lever has the force between the resistance and the fulcrum, and is made for speed?

3rd class

What is the most common class of lever within the body?

Knee/elbow flexion

What are examples of a 3rd class lever within the body?

Actin and myosin

What is the contractile tissue within a muscle fiber?

Endomysium, perimysium, and epimysium

What are the non-contractile tissues within a muscle?

Step 1

Which step in a muscle contraction consists of a calcium influx, which triggers troponin to pull tropomyosin off and expose the binding site on actin?

Step 2

Which step in muscle contraction consists of myosin binding actin?

Step 3

Which step in muscle contraction is the power stroke? (H zone and I zone disappear)

Step 4

Which step in muscle contraction is hydrolysis of ATP, which returns the sliding filaments to normal position?

Step 5

Calcium returns to the sarcoplasmic reticulum in which step of a muscle contraction?

True

T/F- The force of contraction depends on the number of motor units within a muscle, and the number of muscle fibers within a motor unit.

Concentric

Which form of isotonic contraction will shorten the muscle?

Eccentric

Which form of isotonic contraction will lengthen the muscle?

Isokinetic

What type of contraction will have constant velocity throughout?

Isotonic

What type of contraction will have constant strength throughout?

IIa

What type of muscle fiber is fast twitch, fast oxidative, quickly fatigued, and more easily recruited?

IIb

What type of muscle fiber is fast twitch, fast glycolytic, is more difficult to recruit, and is used in very high intensity exercises?

I

What type of muscle fiber is slow oxidative, has rich blood supply, goes to highly aerobic tissues, small fibers, and is made for endurance?

IIa

Which type of type II muscle fiber is most easily recruited and is more aerobic than the other?

Open

FIB- Biceps curls, bench press, and sit ups are all examples of _______ chain movements.

Closed

FIB- Squats, push-ups, and handstands are all examples of _________ chain movements.

Frontal

Which plane of movement would shoulder raises, side squats, and jumping jacks be in?

Sagittal

Which plane of movement would consist of sit-ups, biceps curls, and hamstring curls?

Horizontal (transverse)

Which plane of movement would consist of push-ups, squats, and pull ups?

Ballistic

What type of stretches involve rapid alternating movements to end-range, and are considered an increased injury risk due to constant tension of the muscle spindles?

PNF

What type of stretching occurs in a spiral-diagonal plane?

Static

What type of stretching occurs in only a single plane?

Diagonal 1 and 2

What are the two patterns of motion for each extremity?

Soccer kick

What is the D1 movement of the lower extremity?

Snow plow

What is the D2 movement of the lower extremity?

Sword from sheath to air

What is the D2 movement of the upper extremity?

Grab seat belt to fasten seat belt

What is the D1 movement of the upper extremity?

CRAC (contract-relax-agonist contract)

Which technique utilizes reciprocal inhibition?

Hold relax, PIR, and postfacilitation stretch

Which techniques utilize the postcontraction inhibition principle?

PFS (post facilitation stretch)

Which stretching technique will the patient isometrically contract at maximum or near maximum strength for approximately 10 seconds?

MET (muscle energy technique)

Which stretching technique is thought to be particularly helpful with postural muscles?

Isometric

In acute stages of recovery, we need to do what type of contraction?

Eccentric

What type of muscle contraction is most likely to produce DOMS (delayed onset muscle soreness)

True

T/F- Max concentric force is usually less than max eccentric force.

False

T/F- A shorter moment arm equals more force produced.

Power, core, assistance

Exercises should be completed in what order?

Superset

What type of workout involves two exercises that stresses opposing muscles?

Compound set

What type of workout involves two different exercises that stress the same muscle group?

Max HR

220-age will give you an estimation of what?

Depression/anxiety

Training twice a week in 1.5 hour sessions has been shown to decrease what?

METs (metabolic equivalents)

VO2 max is the maximal amount of oxygen that can be taken in and utilized per Kg/min, it is also sometimes measured in what?

METs (metabolic equivalents)

What is an accurate estimate of resting metabolic rate, or the amount of energy used in 1 minute of resting?

EPOC (excess post-exercise oxygen consumption)

What is the elevation above resting oxygen consumption that occurs shortly after an exercise ends?

220mmHg

What is the maximal safe systolic blood pressure elevation during workouts?

Decreased

FIB- During exercise, local factors cause dilation in the working muscles, which results in ____________ total peripheral resistance.

Anaerobic threshold

What is the point where there is a shift towards anaerobic metabolism, and a ventilatory breakpoint where excess carbon dioxide is expired?

Growth hormone

Which hormone increases the second most behind testosterone during exercise?

False (Absolutely need baseline)

T/F- For sub-maximal testing, when trying to improve something there is no need to take an initial baseline measurement.

Balke Treadmill test (buffalo test)

What test is good for patients recovering from concussions and for cardiac patients because it gives the physician an idea of where symptoms return for the patient?

Heart rate reserve

What is the difference between an individual's maximum heart rate and their resting heart rate?

Static

What type of stretching should elderly patients incorporate into their daily routine?

Active isolated stretching

What type of stretching is also known as the Mattes method, and the doctor will apply a gradual tension of no more than a pound of pressure, and for no longer than 2 seconds?

MET (muscle energy technique)

Which stretching technique may be utilized by DO's during manipulations?

Rhythmic stabilization, slow reversal, and fast reversal

What specific PNF techniques are utilized to facilitate muscles that are weak?

Hold relax, contract-relax, and CRAC

What specific PNF techniques are used to inhibit hyperactive or tight muscles?

Fat and carbs

What two macronutrients are primarily used in calculating the respiratory quotient?

Respiratory quotient

What is the ratio of CO2 eliminated to the amount of O2 consumed?

No

Is ballistic stretching functional?

Reciprocal inhibition

Sherrington's law states that contraction of the agonist simultaneously inhibits the action of the antagonist; which is termed what?