TB, Sarcoidosis, and Lung Cancer

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Last updated 6:43 PM on 4/9/26
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122 Terms

1
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What is tuberculosis?

- chronic infectious disease caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis

- consumption or wasting

2
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What diseases are associated with an increased risk for developing TB?

- HIV/immunosuppression

- DM

- contact with an infected person

- Cancer

3
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What are risk factors for developing TB?

- immigrants

- dense populations

- health care workers

- IV drug users

4
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What medication is associated with an increased risk for developing TB?

TNF-a-inhibitors

5
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What are the two stages of the pathophysiology of TB?

1. primary infection

2. secondary

6
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What are the primary stage of TB?

- active: non-contained bacteria replicate and cause contagious symptoms (cavitary lesions)

- latent: macrophage contained bacteria that does not replicate and no contagious symptoms (caseated GHON LESIONS)

7
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What is a caseating granuloma?

It is a cheese-like necrosis, typically a feature of a granuloma of TB seen in latent infections

(ghon lesion with soft tissue)

<p>It is a cheese-like necrosis, typically a feature of a granuloma of TB seen in latent infections </p><p>(ghon lesion with soft tissue)</p>
8
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Describe the secondary stage of TB?

- reactivation of latent TB when macrophages release dormant mycobacterium

- patient is contagious

9
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What is extrapulmonary TB (miliary/disseminated TB)?

hematologic spread of TB from initial pulmonary infection to another organ

10
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What is extrapulmonary TB of the spine?

Pott's Disease

11
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What is extrapulmonary TB of the lymphatic system?

Scrofula

12
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What is scrofula and how does it present?

- extrapulmonary TB disease in children

- presents with cervical lymphadenitis

<p>- extrapulmonary TB disease in children</p><p>- presents with cervical lymphadenitis</p>
13
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What is the TB symptom triad?

1. fever

2. chronic cough

3. night sweats

14
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What is seen on PE of latent TB?

normal

15
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What is seen on PE of active TB?

- wasting appearance

- fever

- apical post-tussive rales

- distant breath sounds

16
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What is the gold standard/best test for diagnosis for TB?

- Culture and Sensitivity

- deep lung cough sputum sample in early morning to assess an acid-fast bacillus

17
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What are other diagnostics for TB?

- PCR/NAAT (identifies specific DNA)

- AFB smear

18
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What is screening methods for TB?

- PPD (skin test)

- QuantiFERON-TB

19
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In what situations would a >/5 mm PPD warrant a (+) PPD?

- HIV (+)

- close contacts

- abnormal CXR

20
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In what situations would a >/10 mm PPD warrant a (+) PPD?

- recent immigration

- group living (nursing home patient or prisoner)

- medical worker

- high-risk population

21
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In what situations would a >/15 mm PPD warrant a (+) PPD?

all other patients

22
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What vaccine could cause a false (+) with PPD?

BCG vaccine

23
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What could cause false (-) with PPD?

- incorrect PPD placement

- immunocompromised

- chronic illness/infection pt

24
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What is seen of CXR with TB?

- unilateral apical infiltrates

- caseating granulomas

- cavitations

- Ghon complexes

- pleural effusion

<p>- unilateral apical infiltrates</p><p>- caseating granulomas</p><p>- cavitations</p><p>- Ghon complexes</p><p>- pleural effusion</p>
25
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When is it appropriate to test for TB?

- active symptoms of TB

- immunocompromised

- medications (TNF-a)

- contact of infected individuals

- immigrants

- nursing home patients, hospitalized patients, or prisoners

- health care workers

26
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Is TB a reportable disease?

Yes, it is mandatory

27
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TB (+) patients no longer need isolated when?

sputum spears are (-) x 3

28
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What is the treatment regimen for latent TB?

Isoniazid + Rifapentine (weekly) x 3 months

29
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What is the treatment regimen for active TB (adults and children 12+)?

- Rifapentine + Isonizide + Moxifloxacin + Pyrazinamide (daily) x 8 weeks (RIMP)

- Rifapentine + Isonizide + Moxifloxacin (daily) x 9 weeks

30
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What is the treatment regimen for active TB (<12)?

- rifampin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide + ethambutol x 2 months

- rifampin + isoniazid x 4 months

31
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What is the treatment regimen for active TB in pregnant patients?

- Rifampin + Isonizide + Ethambutol (daily) x 2 months

- Isonizide + Rifampin x 7 months

32
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What are the treatment complications for Rifampin/Rifapentine?

- Thrombocytopenia

- Red/orange discoloration of body fluids

- Hepatotoxicity

33
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What are the treatment complications for Isoniazid?

- hepatotoxicity

- neuropathy

34
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What are the treatment complications for pyrazinamid?

- hepatotoxicity

- hyperuricemia

35
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What are the treatment complications for ethambutol?

Optic neuritis

36
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What are the treatment complications for streptomycin?

- Ototoxicity

- Nephrotoxicity

37
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Which drug should be used for HIV (+) patients and pregnancy in TB (makes it different than standard tx)?

rifapentine

38
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What is the treatment regimen of extrapulmonary TB?

- same treatment of TB of the lungs, but should be at least 9+ months

- +/- corticosteroids for pericarditis and meningitis

- +/- surgical debridement/draining of affected tissues

39
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How is the prognosis for untreated and treated TB?

- untreated = fatal in 50-60% in 5 years

- treated = excellent

40
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What is multi-drug resistant TB, and what is treatment?

- resistant to Isoniazid and Rifampin

- need a susceptible three-drug regimen until negative culture THEN 2 drug regimen x 12 months

41
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What is patient education with TB?

- isolate

- hygiene

- diet counseling

- HIV screening

42
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How is atypical mycobacterium transmitted?

environmental (water, soil, dust and farms)

43
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What is the mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)?

- M. avium and M. intracellulare

- chronic slow progressive respiratory disease

44
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What is the diagnosis for MAC?

- AFB smear/culture

- PCR

- CXR

45
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What is the treatment for MAC?

macrolide (clarithromycin or azithromycin) PLUS rifampin and ethambutol x 12-18 months after negative culture

46
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What is non-tuberculosis mycobacterium transmission and presentation (NTM)?

- usually from freshwater sources

- can cause skin infection with nodules and ulcerations

47
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What are the types of NTM?

- M. marinum: salt and fresh water

- M. fortuitum: pedicure bath water

- M. abscessus/M. fortuitum: surgical procedures

48
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What is the diagnosis of NTM?

- tissue biopsy

- AFB smear/culture

- PCR/NAAT

49
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What is the treatment of NTM?

macrolide + rifampin + ethambutol for 4-6 weeks after resolution of skin lesions

50
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What is sarcoidosis, and what is it characterized by?

- a chronic multisystem inflammatory disorder

- accumulation of noncaseating granulomas in multiple organs

51
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What is seen on CXR with sarcoidosis?

non-caseating granulomas in multiple organs

52
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What is the location of 90% of granulomas with sarcoidosis?

- lungs

- lymph nodes in hilar regions

53
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What is the etiology of sarcoidosis?

unknown

54
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What is the pathophysiology of sarcoidosis?

-T and B cell hyper-reactivity = excess immune reaction = inflammation

- TNF elevation causes inflammation

- granuloma secrete ACE and 1-25D

55
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What are the top organ systems affected by sarcoidosis?

- lungs

- lymphatics

- skin

56
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What are the symptoms of sarcoidosis?

- cough

- dyspnea

- chest pain

- hemoptysis

- myalgias/arthralgia

57
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What are the PE findings of sarcoidosis?

- pulmonary HTN

- lupus pernio and erythema nodosum

- hilar LAD

58
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What is lupus pernio?

- violaceous, raised discoloration of nose/ear/cheek/chin

- resembles frostbite

- pathognomonic for sarcoidosis

<p>- violaceous, raised discoloration of nose/ear/cheek/chin</p><p>- resembles frostbite</p><p>- pathognomonic for sarcoidosis</p>
59
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What is erythema nodosum?

- tender red nodules that are usually found on the shins

- associated with sarcoidosis

<p>- tender red nodules that are usually found on the shins</p><p>- associated with sarcoidosis</p>
60
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What are complications fo sarcoidosis?

- Nephritis/renal failure

- cranial or peripheral nerve palsy

- CHF, arrhythmias/heart block, cardiomyopathy

- granuloma formation

- Lofgren's syndrome

61
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Why does nephritis occur with sarcoidosis?

hypercalcemia associated with sarcoidosis (granuloma secrete Vit D = more Ca2+ absorption)

62
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What CN palsy occurs with sarcoidosis?

Bell's palsy

63
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What cardiac issues occurs with sarcoidosis?

-CHF, arrythmia, cardiomyopathy

64
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What bone issues occur with sarcoidosis?

granuloma formation

65
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What is Lofgren's syndrome triad?

- erythema nodosum

- bilateral hilar LAD

- polyarthralgia + fever

66
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What is the best initial assessment for sarcoidosis?

CXR

67
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What is seen on CXR with sarcoidosis, and what is stage I/ IV?

- I: hilar lymphadenopathy

- IV: overt pulmonary fibrosis

<p>- I: hilar lymphadenopathy</p><p>- IV: overt pulmonary fibrosis</p>
68
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What is best for getting a true diagnosis and histology (identifying non-caseating granulomas) with sarcoidosis?

bronchoscopy with biopsy

69
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What is seen on CT with sarcoidosis?

cluster of black pearl signs

<p>cluster of black pearl signs</p>
70
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What is ratio of CD4/CD8 on bronchoalveolar lavage for sarcoidosis?

> 3.5

71
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What does a PET scan show with sarcoidosis?

gallium uptake of the parotids or other regions for involvement

72
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What is the "panda sign" in sarcoidosis?

uptake in the parotids

<p>uptake in the parotids</p>
73
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What is the "lambda sign" in sarcoidosis?

uptake in the chest

<p>uptake in the chest</p>
74
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What is seen in labs with sarcoidosis?

- LFT: high alk phos

- CBC: leukopenia

- Serum/urine calcium: high

- ACE levels: high

- ESR: elevated

75
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What is the mainstay of therapy for sarcoidosis?

oral corticosteroids

76
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What are the second line agents for sarcoidosis?

methotrexate, hydroxychloroquine, or azathioprine

77
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What are other options for sarcoidosis?

- monoclonal ABs (mab's)

- TNF-a- blockers

78
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What may be indicated in severe cases of sarcoidosis?

lung transplant

79
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What is the #1 risk factor for lung cancer?

tobacco use (smoking)

80
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What are 4 other RFs for the development of lung cancer?

- age

- scarring disease (COPD)

- environmental exposure

- genetics

81
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What is the pathophysiology of lung cancer?

- Activation of dominant oncogenes

- Inactivation of tumor-suppressor genes

82
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What are the 2 classifications of lung cancer?

1. small-cell (SCLC)

2. Non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC)

83
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What are the 3 types of NSCLC?

1. Adenocarcinoma

2. Squamous cell carcinoma

3. Large cell carcinoma

84
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What is small-cell lung cancer?

- 98% of the time related to a smoking history

- 13% of all lung malignancy

85
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What is the pathophysiology of SCLC, and does it present as central or peripheral?

- neuroendocrine tumor

- arises central peribronchial location

- rapid growth and metastasis

- high association with paraneoplastic syndromes

86
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What is adenocarcinoma lung cancer?

- most common type of all lung malignancies

- seen more in non-smokers, women, and young adults

87
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What is the pathophysiology of adenocarcinoma lung cancer, and does it present as central or peripheral?

- usually presents as a peripheral tumor

- somewhat rapid growth

88
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What is adenocarcinoma in situ?

- spreads along alveolar structures without invasion

- less chance of mets --> pretty good and curable

89
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What is squamous cell lung carcinoma?

- second most common subtype with hemoptysis for presentation

- strong associated with smoking

90
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What is the pathophysiology of squamous cell lung cancer, and does it present as central or peripheral?

- central tumor with cavitary lesions

- tends to grow slowly

- highly associated with hypercalcemia/pancoast syndrome

91
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What is large cell carcinoma?

rarer form of cancer (2-5%)

92
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What is the pathophysiology of large cell carcinoma, and does it present as central or peripheral?

- peripheral tumors

- rapid growth/aggressive

93
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What are the symptoms of central lung tumors?

- cough

- hemoptysis

- wheezing

- Dysnpnea

- chest pain

- weight loss

94
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What are the symptoms of a peripheral lung tumor?

- voice changes

- pain in vertebra/ribs

- atelectasis

- PE

- neurologic sx

- weight loss

95
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What 4 places can lung cancer metastasize to?

- bone

- liver

- adrenal

- brain

96
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What is Pancoast syndrome?

tumor at apex that infiltrates the branchial plexus causing arm pain, numbness and weakness

97
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What is Horner Syndrome?

tumor of the eye's sympathetic nerve supply causing ptosis, mitosis and anhidrosis

98
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What is SVC syndrome, and is it more associated with NSCLC or SCLC?

- blockage of SVC from tumor causing R sided facial, neck and arm swelling

- NSCLC

99
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What are paraneoplastic symptoms?

- hormone substances secreted by tumors causing endocrine disturbance

- examples: hypoglycemia, SIADH, hypercalcemia, hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthritis, cushing syndrome, or lambert-eaton myasthenic syndrome

100
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What is Lambert-Eaton Myasthenia Syndrome?

- impaired Ach release at NMJ

- causes ocular and proximal muscle weakness and decreased DTRs