PARA FINALS AI

The drug of choice for intestinal nematode infection in a patient older than 2 years old is:
 a. Praziquantel
 b. Albendazole 400 mg single dose
 c. Metronidazole 500 mg TID
 d. Co-trimoxazole

b. Albendazole 400 mg single dose

A 1-year-old child with ascariasis is brought to the clinic. The appropriate albendazole dose is:
 a. Albendazole 400 mg one tablet single dose
 b. Albendazole 400 mg half tablet single dose
 c. Praziquantel 25 mg/kg TID
 d. Metronidazole 750 mg TID

b. Albendazole 400 mg half tablet single dose

Drug of choice for blood fluke infection is:
 a. Albendazole
 b. Mebendazole
 c. Praziquantel
 d. Metronidazole

c. Praziquantel

Praziquantel is the drug of choice for trematodes. However, it is not recommended as the main drug for which fluke infection?
 a. Blood fluke
 b. Lung fluke
 c. Intestinal fluke
 d. Liver fluke

d. Liver fluke

Drug of choice for Fasciola infection is:
 a. Praziquantel
 b. Triclabendazole
 c. Metronidazole
 d. Albendazole

b. Triclabendazole

Drug of choice for Paragonimus infection is:
 a. Praziquantel
 b. Mebendazole
 c. Co-trimoxazole
 d. Metronidazole

a. Praziquantel

A patient with intestinal fluke infection due to Echinostoma should be treated with:
 a. Praziquantel
 b. Albendazole
 c. Ivermectin
 d. Diethylcarbamazine

a. Praziquantel

Drug of choice for asymptomatic amebic cyst passers is:
 a. Metronidazole
 b. Tinidazole
 c. Diloxanide
 d. Secnidazole

c. Diloxanide

The objective of treatment in intestinal amoebiasis includes the following EXCEPT:
 a. To cure invasive disease at intestinal sites
 b. To eliminate cyst passage from the intestinal lumen
 c. To cure amoebiasis at extra-intestinal sites
 d. To eradicate relapse of amoebiasis

d. To eradicate relapse of amoebiasis

The drug of choice for invasive intestinal amoebiasis is:
 a. Metronidazole
 b. Praziquantel
 c. Albendazole
 d. Ivermectin

a. Metronidazole

A patient with amebic liver abscess presents with fever and right upper quadrant pain. The best supporting diagnostic test is:
 a. Kato-Katz method
 b. Serology
 c. Cellulose tape swab
 d. Direct sputum smear

b. Serology

The key diagnosis in amebic liver abscess is:
 a. Detection of trophozoites in the liver
 b. Detection of antibodies in the serum
 c. Detection of cysts in the right lobe of the liver
 d. Detection of eggs in stool

b. Detection of antibodies in the serum

Gold standard serological methods in amebic liver abscess include:
 a. Indirect hemagglutination
 b. Indirect fluorescent antibody test
 c. Both A and B
 d. Neither A nor B

c. Both A and B

The cardinal manifestations of amebic liver abscess are:
 a. Fever only
 b. Right upper quadrant pain only
 c. Both fever and right upper quadrant pain
 d. Neither fever nor right upper quadrant pain

c. Both fever and right upper quadrant pain

Most common serious complication of amebic liver abscess is:
 a. Rupture into the pericardium
 b. Genital involvement
 c. Intestinal obstruction
 d. Rectal prolapse

a. Rupture into the pericardium

The following are diagnostic findings in E. histolytica infection EXCEPT:
 a. Trophozoites with ingested RBCs
 b. Charcot-Leyden crystals
 c. Cysts
 d. Cilia in cyst form

d. Cilia in cyst form

Differentiation of E. histolytica and E. dispar is done by the following EXCEPT:
 a. Microscopy
 b. PCR
 c. ELISA
 d. Isoenzyme analysis

a. Microscopy

The diagnostic test more sensitive than DFS for detection of E. histolytica trophozoites is:
 a. FECT
 b. MIFC
 c. PCR
 d. None of the above

c. PCR

The following are mechanisms for virulence of E. histolytica EXCEPT:
 a. Production of enzymes
 b. Contact-dependent cell killing
 c. Cytophagocytosis
 d. Receptor-mediated adherence of ameba to target cells

d. Receptor-mediated adherence of ameba to target cells

Major reservoir of infection with E. histolytica is:
 a. Dogs and cats
 b. Humans
 c. Both A and B
 d. Neither A nor B

b. Humans

A patient with bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting has DFS showing “floating leaf-like motility.” The probable diagnosis is:
 a. Balantidiasis
 b. Amoebiasis
 c. Giardiasis
 d. Trichomoniasis

c. Giardiasis

Giardia lamblia inhabits the:
 a. Duodenum, jejunum, and upper ileum
 b. Large intestine
 c. Portal vein
 d. Lungs

a. Duodenum, jejunum, and upper ileum

Giardiasis is an intestinal protozoan infection. The locomotory apparatus of the etiologic agent is:
 a. Cilia
 b. Pseudopodia
 c. Flagella
 d. None of those mentioned

c. Flagella

Giardiasis may cause which clinical manifestation?
 a. Malabsorption syndrome
 b. Cerebral malaria
 c. Hydrocele
 d. Blackwater fever

a. Malabsorption syndrome

Giardia lamblia excysts in the:
 a. Stomach
 b. Duodenum
 c. Liver
 d. Rectum

b. Duodenum

The quickest and most inexpensive way to diagnose Trichomonas infection is:
 a. Culture and sensitivity
 b. Pap smear
 c. Wet smear of vaginal fluid
 d. PCR

c. Wet smear of vaginal fluid

Trichomonas vaginalis exists only in which stage?
 a. Cyst stage
 b. Trophozoite stage
 c. Oocyst stage
 d. Egg stage

b. Trophozoite stage

A harmless commensal of the human mouth living in tartar around the teeth and necrotic mucosal cells in the gingival margins is:
 a. Trichomonas vaginalis
 b. Trichomonas tenax
 c. Chilomastix mesnili
 d. Giardia duodenalis

b. Trichomonas tenax

Balantidium coli primarily inhabits the:
 a. Large intestine
 b. Duodenum
 c. Liver
 d. Bloodstream

a. Large intestine

Diagnostic stage of Balantidium coli is:
 a. Trophozoite only
 b. Cyst only
 c. Both trophozoite and cyst
 d. Neither trophozoite nor cyst

c. Both trophozoite and cyst

Form of balantidiasis wherein the patient experiences diarrhea alternating with constipation, abdominal pain, anemia, and cachexia is:
 a. Acute balantidiasis
 b. Fulminant balantidiasis
 c. Symptomatic carrier state
 d. Chronic balantidiasis

d. Chronic balantidiasis

Coccidian life cycle is typically characterized by three sequential stages:
 a. Sporogony, schizogony, and gametogony
 b. Trophogony, sporogony, and binary fission
 c. Encystation, excystation, and budding
 d. Schizogony, larval migration, and oviposition

a. Sporogony, schizogony, and gametogony

Water-borne transmission is the most common source of cryptosporidiosis.
 a. True
 b. False

a. True

Cryptosporidium hominis can be found in animals and humans.
 a. True
 b. False

b. False

Drug of choice for symptomatic cystoisosporiasis is:
 a. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
 b. Corticosteroid
 c. Both A and B
 d. No need of pharmacological treatment

a. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

Drug of choice for symptomatic moderate cyclosporidiosis is:
 a. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
 b. Corticosteroid
 c. Both A and B
 d. No need of pharmacological treatment

a. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

Drug of choice as prophylaxis for immunocompromised patient with toxoplasmosis is:
 a. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
 b. Corticosteroid
 c. Both A and B
 d. No need of pharmacological treatment

a. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

Toxoplasmosis and cryptosporidiosis are opportunistic parasitic infections. Ingestion of oocysts is the mode of infection in both parasitic infections.
 a. True
 b. False

a. True

Toxoplasmosis and cryptosporidiosis are opportunistic parasitic infections. Both parasitic infections are zoonotic infections.
 a. True
 b. False

a. True

The gold standard in diagnosis of malaria is:
 a. Antigen detection test
 b. ELISA
 c. Microscopy using thick and thin blood films
 d. Serology

c. Microscopy using thick and thin blood films

Which diagnostic test for malaria can be done in far-flung endemic communities for early diagnosis and treatment?
 a. Microscopy
 b. Rapid Diagnostic Test
 c. Serology
 d. A and B

d. A and B

The natural mode of transmission of Plasmodium is:
 a. Blood transfusion
 b. Congenital transmission
 c. Mosquito bite
 d. Inoculation through blood-contaminated needles

c. Mosquito bite

The following stages of P. vivax are detected in the malaria smear EXCEPT:
 a. Trophozoites
 b. Schizonts
 c. Gametocytes
 d. Hypnozoites

d. Hypnozoites

The following erythrocytic stages of P. falciparum are usually detected in the blood smear EXCEPT:
 a. Ring forms
 b. Schizonts
 c. Microgametocytes
 d. Macrogametocytes

b. Schizonts

In falciparum malaria, only early trophozoite and gametocyte forms are seen in most cases.
 a. True
 b. False

a. True

The fever pattern in P. falciparum infection is:
 a. Benign tertian
 b. Quartan
 c. Malignant tertian
 d. None of those mentioned

c. Malignant tertian

Malignant tertian malaria is caused by:
 a. P. vivax
 b. P. malariae
 c. P. ovale
 d. P. falciparum

d. P. falciparum

Blackwater fever is commonly associated with:
 a. P. ovale
 b. P. falciparum
 c. P. vivax
 d. P. malariae

b. P. falciparum

Manifestations of complicated or severe malaria include the following EXCEPT:
 a. Cerebral malaria
 b. Pulmonary edema
 c. Severe anemia
 d. None of those mentioned

d. None of those mentioned

The drug of choice in severe malaria is:
 a. Chloroquine
 b. Artemether-lumefantrine
 c. Quinine/Quinidine
 d. Pyrimethamine

c. Quinine/Quinidine

The peripheral smear of a cerebral malaria patient would most likely show:
 a. Irregular-shaped trophozoite
 b. Spherical gametocytes
 c. Schizont with 8–32 merozoites
 d. Rosette schizont

a. Irregular-shaped trophozoite

The following mechanisms have been implicated in the pathology of malaria EXCEPT:
 a. Rosette formation
 b. Cytoadherence to the endothelial cells
 c. Granuloma formation
 d. Sequestration

c. Granuloma formation

The malaria attack or paroxysm is characterized by the following EXCEPT:
 a. Sweating
 b. Chills
 c. Fever
 d. None of those mentioned

d. None of those mentioned

Which of the following provinces in the Philippines remains as a hot spot for malaria?
 a. Agusan del Sur
 b. Bukidnon
 c. Palawan
 d. Basilan

c. Palawan

Malaria in the Philippines is a rural disease.
 a. True
 b. False

a. True

The breeding place of the mosquito vector Anopheles flavirostris is stagnant water.
 a. True
 b. False

a. True

Biological control as a strategy in malaria control is environment-friendly.
 a. True
 b. False

a. True

Mass drug administration is recommended for malaria control in endemic areas because of the phenomenon of drug resistance.
 a. True
 b. False

b. False

The following are malariometric indices EXCEPT:
 a. Spleen rate
 b. Slide positivity rate
 c. Annual parasite incidence
 d. None of those mentioned

d. None of those mentioned

Slide positivity rate is:
 a. Number of positive slides divided by number examined x 100
 b. Number of positive slides divided by number examined x 1000
 c. Number of positive slides divided by target population x 100
 d. Number of positive slides divided by target population x 1000

a. Number of positive slides divided by number examined x 100

The following diagnostic method(s) detect Plasmodial antigens EXCEPT:
 a. Indirect Fluorescent Antibody Test
 b. Dipstick
 c. Card test
 d. Optimal test

a. Indirect Fluorescent Antibody Test

A 30-year-old male from Palawan presents with on and off fever and headache. Thick and thin blood smears show small ring forms and sausage-shaped gametocytes. The most likely species is:
 a. P. vivax
 b. P. malariae
 c. P. ovale
 d. P. falciparum

d. P. falciparum

A 30-year-old male from Palawan has malaria with possible cerebral involvement. The species most associated with severe complications and death is:
 a. P. vivax
 b. P. falciparum
 c. P. ovale
 d. P. malariae

b. P. falciparum

In malaria, the infective stage transmitted to humans by the mosquito is:
 a. Trophozoite
 b. Sporozoite
 c. Schizont
 d. Oocyst

b. Sporozoite

The process in the Plasmodium life cycle that does not occur in humans is:
 a. Sporogony
 b. Gametogony
 c. Schizogony
 d. None of those mentioned

a. Sporogony

A patient with fever, chills, sweating, and hemoglobinuria after malaria infection most likely has infection due to:
 a. P. ovale
 b. P. falciparum
 c. P. vivax
 d. P. malariae

b. P. falciparum

The Plasmodium species with the longest incubation period is:
 a. P. malariae
 b. P. ovale
 c. P. vivax
 d. P. falciparum

a. P. malariae

Plasmodium infection is best controlled and prevented by:
 a. Water, sanitation and hygiene
 b. Vector control
 c. Cook food well
 d. None of those mentioned

b. Vector control

Vector control for malaria may be achieved through the following EXCEPT:
 a. Destroying mosquito breeding sites in empty cans and old tires
 b. Use of insecticide-treated bed nets
 c. Insecticidal residual spraying
 d. None of those mentioned

d. None of those mentioned

A patient going to a malaria-endemic area may avoid infection through:
 a. Chemoprophylaxis
 b. Personal protection and use of insect repellant
 c. Preventive chemotherapy
 d. A and B

d. A and B

The infective stage of Leishmania is:
 a. Amastigote
 b. Promastigote
 c. Epimastigote
 d. Trypomastigote

b. Promastigote

The form of Leishmania formed in the proboscis of the sandfly is:
 a. Amastigote
 b. Promastigote
 c. Epimastigote
 d. Trypomastigote

b. Promastigote

Disseminated form of leishmaniasis manifested as spread of parasites in the bone marrow, spleen, and liver is:
 a. Cutaneous form
 b. Mucocutaneous form
 c. Visceral form
 d. Diffuse cutaneous

c. Visceral form

Trypanosoma cruzi stage found in tissue cells is:
 a. Amastigote
 b. Promastigote
 c. Epimastigote
 d. Trypomastigote

a. Amastigote

Infective stage of Trypanosoma cruzi is:
 a. Amastigote
 b. Promastigote
 c. Epimastigote
 d. Trypomastigote

d. Trypomastigote

Trypanosoma cruzi stage developed in the midgut of bugs is:
 a. Amastigote
 b. Promastigote
 c. Epimastigote
 d. Trypomastigote

c. Epimastigote

Infective stage of Trypanosoma brucei is:
 a. Amastigote
 b. Promastigote
 c. Epimastigote
 d. Trypomastigote

d. Trypomastigote

In Gambian trypanosomiasis, enlarged, non-tender, rubbery posterior cervical lymph nodes are known as:
 a. Romana’s sign
 b. Winterbottom’s sign
 c. Chagoma
 d. Hardware disease

b. Winterbottom’s sign

Granulomatous amebic encephalitis in humans is caused by:
 a. Acanthamoeba
 b. Naegleria fowleri
 c. Naegleria gruberi
 d. Entamoeba

a. Acanthamoeba

Previously known as Laredo strain:
 a. E. histolytica
 b. E. dispar
 c. E. polecki
 d. E. moshkovskii

b. E. dispar

Associated with bloody diarrhea:
 a. Bacillary dysentery
 b. Amebic dysentery
 c. Both A and B
 d. Neither A nor B

c. Both A and B

May be associated with epidemic:
 a. Bacillary dysentery
 b. Amebic dysentery
 c. Both A and B
 d. Neither A nor B

a. Bacillary dysentery

Tenesmus is uncommon in:
 a. Bacillary dysentery
 b. Amebic dysentery
 c. Both A and B
 d. Neither A nor B

b. Amebic dysentery

Associated with the presence of Charcot-Leyden crystals:
 a. Bacillary dysentery
 b. Amebic dysentery
 c. Both A and B
 d. Neither A nor B

b. Amebic dysentery

Incubation period of amebic colitis:
 a. 8 to 10 days
 b. After a short period of being an asymptomatic cyst carrier
 c. After a short period of severe symptomatic cyst carrier
 d. Both A and B

d. Both A and B

True about amebic colitis:
 a. The most serious complication is perforation and secondary bacterial peritonitis
 b. Colonic perforation occurs in 60% of fulminant colitis cases
 c. Both A and B are true
 d. Both A and B are false

c. Both A and B are true

True about ameboma, EXCEPT:
 a. It can be mistaken for carcinoma
 b. It is a mass-like lesion with abdominal pain and history of constipation
 c. It may occur in intestinal amebiasis
 d. It is the most common extra-intestinal form of amebiasis

d. It is the most common extra-intestinal form of amebiasis

Differential diagnoses of amebic liver abscess include the following EXCEPT:
 a. Pyogenic liver abscess
 b. Tuberculosis of the liver
 c. Hepatic carcinoma
 d. Lymphogranuloma venereum

d. Lymphogranuloma venereum

Using DFS with saline solution, the following can be observed in E. histolytica EXCEPT:
 a. Trophozoite motility
 b. Differentiating E. histolytica against WBC
 c. Unidirectional movement of E. histolytica
 d. All are correct

d. All are correct

Multiply by binary fission:
 a. Giardia lamblia
 b. Balantidium coli
 c. Both A and B
 d. Neither A nor B

c. Both A and B

Excysts in the small intestine:
 a. Giardia lamblia
 b. Balantidium coli
 c. Both A and B
 d. Neither A nor B

a. Giardia lamblia

Excysts in the duodenum:
 a. Giardia lamblia
 b. Balantidium coli
 c. Both A and B
 d. Neither A nor B

a. Giardia lamblia

Inhabits the large intestine:
 a. Giardia lamblia
 b. Balantidium coli
 c. Both A and B
 d. Neither A nor B

b. Balantidium coli

A patient with chronic watery diarrhea, weight loss, borborygmus, bipedal edema, and peanut-shaped ova in stool most likely has infection due to:
 a. Capillaria philippinensis
 b. Trichuris trichiura
 c. Capillaria hepatica
 d. Trichuris vulpis

a. Capillaria philippinensis

Drug of choice for intestinal capillariasis is:
 a. Mebendazole or Albendazole
 b. Praziquantel only
 c. Metronidazole only
 d. Diethylcarbamazine only

a. Mebendazole or Albendazole

The mode of infection in intestinal capillariasis is commonly:
 a. Ingestion of raw food
 b. Skin penetration
 c. Mosquito bite
 d. Sexual contact

a. Ingestion of raw food

Pathologic findings in intestinal capillariasis include the following EXCEPT:
 a. Presence of nematode adults, larvae, and eggs
 b. Lamina propria infiltrated with inflammatory cells
 c. Denuded small intestinal villi
 d. None of those mentioned

d. None of those mentioned

A patient with perianal itching is most likely infected with:
 a. Ascaris lumbricoides
 b. Enterobius vermicularis
 c. Trichuris trichiura
 d. Capillaria philippinensis

b. Enterobius vermicularis

Best diagnostic test for chronic itching of the perianal area is:
 a. Direct fecal smear
 b. FECT stool examination
 c. Cellulose tape swab
 d. Kato-Katz stool examination

c. Cellulose tape swab

Expected finding in Enterobius vermicularis infection is:
 a. Peanut-shaped eggs
 b. Japanese lantern-shaped eggs
 c. Round eggs with striations
 d. D-shaped eggs

d. D-shaped eggs