FiST cert study guide

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Last updated 9:03 PM on 4/9/26
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338 Terms

1
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What are the 5 requirements for achieving accurate first-round fire for effect?

Accurate target location, accurate firing unit location, accurate weapon and ammunition information, accurate meteorological information, accurate computational procedures

2
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As an observer, which of the five requirements for achieving accurate first-round fire for effect are you solely responsible for?

Accurate Target location and size

3
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True/False: The observer serves as the "eyes" of the indirect fire systems and the FDC serves as the "brain" of the system.

True

4
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What and its elements integrate the fires warfighting function into operations?

Fires cell

5
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What asset provides the commander flexibility, range, speed, lethality, precision, and the ability to mass fires at a desired time and place?

Fixed wing aircraft

6
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_____ is executed in support of friendly forces in close enemy contact (i.e., close combat attack) or against enemy forces out of contact with friendly forces.

Army Attack Aviation

7
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Which branch of service employs it's attack rotary wing aviation primarily as a CAS platform?

Marine Corps

8
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True/False: Army Attack Aviation can perform CAS in support of another component.

True

9
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_____ can support or conduct close combat attack, CAS, strike coordination and reconnaissance, AI, and other joint fires missions.

Unmanned Aircraft

10
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_____ normally produces the specific effect on a target with the minimum expenditure of ammunition. It also reduces our vulnerability to adversary target acquisition.

Massing Fires

11
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Failure to select proper shell fuze combinations may result in what?

undesired effect on target, reduction in desired effects on target. excessive expenditure of ammuntion

12
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Aside from tactical considerations, the selection of targets, munitions, and techniques of fire must comply with what?

Law of War and Geneva and Hague Conventions

13
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Observers equipped with nothing more than a map, binoculars, and compass typically have a mean target location error of about how many meters?

250 Meters

14
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Who is in charge of the FIST and also the principal fire support advisor to the commander when attached to or supporting a company or troop?

Company/Troop FSO

15
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The _____ has the responsibility to integrate fire support with the scheme of maneuver and provides the commander's intent for an operation and issues guidance, including guidance for fire support. The _____ translates the guidance into fire support tasks.

Maneuver Commander/ FSO

16
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What is a Target

An entity or object that performs a function for the adversary considered for possible engagement or other actions, A country, area, installation, agency, or person against which intelligence operations are directed, an area designated and numbered for future firing, an impact burst that hits the target.

17
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What is a target that is identified too late, or not selected for action in time, to be included in deliberate targeting that, when detected or located, meets criteria specific to achieving objectives and is processed using dynamic targeting?

Target of oppurtunity

18
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A _____ is a target that is known to exist in the operational environment, upon which actions are planned, using deliberate targeting, creating effects which support commander's objectives.

Planned Target

19
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A _____ is a planned target upon which fires or other actions are scheduled for prosecution at a specified time.

Scheduled Target

20
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A _____ is a planned target upon which fires or other actions are determined using deliberate targeting and triggered, when detected or located, using dynamic targeting.

On-call target

21
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A _____ is a target, based on either time or importance, on which the delivery of fires takes precedence over all the fires for the designated firing unit or element

Priority Target

22
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What is an immediately available prearranged barrier of fire designed to impede enemy movement across defensive lines or areas?

Final Protective Fires

23
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When planning an FPF, what is the approximate length and width in meters for an FPF fired with 4 tubes of 120mm Mortars?

300/75

24
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When planning an FPF, what is the approximate length and width in meters for an FPF fired with 8 guns of 155mm Howitzers?

400/50

25
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What is the DA form used for the Target List Worksheet?

DA Form 4655

26
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A _____ consists of two or more targets on which fire is desired simultaneously

Group of targets

27
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A _____ is a number of targets and/or group(s) of targets planned to be fired in a predetermined sequence to support a maneuver operation

Series of Targets

28
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A _____ consists of a number of planned targets of a similar nature that are planned for sequential attack.

Program of Targets

29
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What field artillery team is organic to each maneuver battalion and selected units to plan and coordinate all available company supporting fires?

Fire Support team

30
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Fire support planning is integrated through targeting and the running estimate. It includes developing integrated fire plans using what?

Target Lists, No Fire Lists, Fire Support Execution Matrix, Scheme of Fires, and Overlays

31
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_____ is the planning and executing of fires so that targets are adequately covered by a suitable weapon or group of weapons.

Fire Support Coordination

32
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_____ can be conducted at any place and time friendly forces are in close proximity to enemy forces.

Close Air Support

33
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_____ is the authority to control the maneuver of and grant weapons release clearance to attacking aircraft.

Terminal Attack Control (TAC)

34
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What type of control requires control of individual attacks and the JTAC/FAC (A) to visually acquire the attacking aircraft and visually acquire the target for each attack?

Type 1

35
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What type of control is used when the JTAC/FAC (A) requires control of individual attacks and is unable to visually acquire the attacking aircraft at weapons release or is unable to visually acquire the target?

Type 2

36
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What type of control is used when the JTAC/FAC (A) requires the ability to provide clearance for multiple attacks within a single engagement subject to specific attack restrictions.

Type 3

37
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What does each letter of the memory aid FA-PARCA stand for?

F-Fire support tasks

A-Allocation of assets or targets to subordinate units

P-Positioning Guidance for Fire Support assets and observers

A-Attack Guidance

R-Restrictions

C-Coordinating instructions

A-Assesment

38
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What types of close air support terminal attack control can a joint fires observer provide target information in support of?

Type 2 and Type 3

39
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How many options are used to employ the fire support team?

3

40
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Which FIST employment option consolidates the FIST at the battalion level?

Option 1-Battalion Fire support team

41
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Which FIST employment option has the FIST assets remaining at the company or troop level?

Option 2- Company/Troop FIST

42
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Which FIST employment option makes it to where most platoons in the maneuver companies or troops receive a forward observer?

Option 3- Platoon Foward Observer

43
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Which forward observer control option would you use for a more experienced and highly trained FO team, allowing them to call for fire from fire support assets available to support the operation?

Option 1- Decentralized

44
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Which forward observer control option would you use to assign a particular fire support asset to an FO from which they may request fire support?

Option 2-Designated

45
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Which forward observer control option would you use for maximum control that requires the FO to contact the FIST for each call for fire?

Option 3- Centralized

46
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Which vehicle employment option positions the FSO in the fire support vehicle?

Option 1- Control

47
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Which vehicle employment option positions the fire support vehicle on terrain to maximize use of the laser designator and rangefinder while the FSO rides in the commander's vehicle?

Option 2- Observation

48
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Which vehicle employment option maximizes assets available to the battalion or brigade commander but might degrade the supported unit?

Option 3- Independent Obsever

49
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Personnel authorized to perform JFO duties must be-

A graduate of a primary duty skill identifier and additional ASI producing school.

50
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Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; Identify the item that is NOT part of L-Location.

Select a position on the highest terrain in order to quickly detect enemy forces.

51
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Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; what is the number one priority for the team?

Communication

52
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Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; Identify the item that is NOT part of T-targeting.

Refine company/troop targets and those assigned by higher headquarters.

53
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True / False: Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; during O - Observation ensure all team members are proficient in friendly or adversary forces recognition.

True

54
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Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; what does the P stand for?

Position Improvement

55
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What should be used as the primary means to determine the targets' location?

Precision Target Location Equipment

56
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_____ is the process of measurement of a feature or location on the earth to determine an absolute latitude, longitude, and elevation.

Mensuration

57
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An observer must be able to self-locate to within _____ meters or _____ meters if degraded by lack of position locating systems or other navigational aids.

10 or 100

58
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Azimuth is a horizontal angle measured clockwise from a north base line that could be-

True North, Grid North, or Magnetic North

59
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When converting degrees to mils you must multiply the number of degrees by what to determine mils?

17.8

60
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What is the interior angle formed at the target by the intersection of the observer-target and the gun-target lines with its vertex at the target?

Angle T

61
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If angle T is 500 mils or greater and the observer is getting more of a correction than asked for, what should the observer consider doing?

Cut the Corrections

62
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The M22/M24 binocular reticle pattern is divided into increments of _____ with shorter hash marks at _____ increments.

10 mils and 5 mils

63
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True/False: Hand measurements of angular deviation are the same for all observers.

False

64
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Using a declinated M2 or a lensatic compass on a tripod or other stable platform, the observer can measure direction to an accuracy of how many mils? How far away should observers move away from vehicles to avoid incorrect readings?

10 mils and 50 meters

65
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What direction will observers convert their direction to for the CFF requests unless otherwise stated?

grid

66
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Using a protractor, the observer can scale direction from a map to an accuracy of how many mils?

10

67
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When a laser range finder is used, distance may be determined to the nearest how many meters?

10

68
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When using the flash to bang method of distance determination, how many meters per second do you multiply by the number of seconds between the time the round impacts (flash) and the time the sound reaches the observer (bang)?

350

69
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Utilizing the flash to bang method of distance determination, you observe the flash and count 14 seconds before hearing the impact, how far is the impact?

4900

70
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An OF fan has how many radial arms that are 100 mils apart and cover 1,600 mils?

17

71
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Vertical shift is only sent in the target location if the difference in vertical shift is greater than or equal to how many meters? Vertical shift is expressed to the nearest how many meters?

35, 5

72
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5 parts of the terrain sketch

Skyline, intermediate hills crests and ridges, manmade features, other natural terrain features, labels

73
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Methods of target location

Grid coordinates using precision imagery with mensuration tools, laser grid, laser polar, grid coordinates using map spot, polar plot, shift from known point

74
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What is CAT I TLE

0-6m/0-20ft

75
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What is CAT II TLE

7-15m/21-50ft

76
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What is CAT III TLE

16-30m/51-100ft

77
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What is CAT IV TLE

31-91m/ 101-300ft

78
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Which is of the following is NOT a part combat identification

Clarification

79
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Six Elements of Call for Fire

Observer identification, Warning order, target location, target description, method of engagement, method of fire and control

80
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What does the warning order consist of?

Type of mission, the size of the element to FFE, and the method of target location

81
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What type of mission is normally fired on planned targets, and a length of time to continue firing (duration) is associated with the call for fire?

Suppress

82
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What type of mission would you use when engaging a planned target or target of opportunity that has taken friendly maneuver or elements under fire?

Immediate Suppression or Immediate Smoke

83
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True / False: When conducting an immediate mission the CFF is sent in three transmissions.

False

84
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Using the laser grid method of target location during an adjust fire mission; how are the corrections sent?

In the form of a grid to the burst location

85
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True / False: In a polar plot mission the FDC only needs to know the target location.

False

86
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In a polar plot mission, a _____ tells the FDC how far, in meters, the target is located above or below the observer's location.

Vertical Shift

87
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True / False: In a shift from known point mission the range shift is in relation to the observer's location.

False

88
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The observer must describe the target in enough detail that the FDC can determine the amount and type of ammunition to use. The target description should contain the following:

what target is, what target is doing, Number of elements in the target, degree of protection, target size and shape

89
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what is the purpose of the target description in a call for fire

So the FDC commander can determine the amount and type of ammunition to use

90
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Method engagement consists of

type of adjustment, danger close, mark, trajectory, ammunition, duration

91
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True / False: The two types of adjustment that may be employed are area and precision.

True

92
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True / False: Precision fire is used for Final Protective Fires (FPF) and destruction missions.

False

93
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What are the danger close distances for artillery and mortars / 5-inch naval guns and TLAM?

600m/ 750m

94
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Which of the following is NOT a reason for MARK to be included in the method of engagement?

to mark the illumination optimal height of burst

95
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If an observer wants HE and then WP what term would they use in the call for fire?

Followed by

96
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If target length, or length and width are given, the observer must also give _____.

Attitude

97
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What are the 14 methods of control from ATP 3-09.30?

Fire when ready, at my command, cannot observe, time on target, time to target, coordinated illumination, continuous illumination, cease loading, check fire, continuous fire, repeat, request splash, do not load, duration

98
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If the observer wishes to control the time of delivery of fire, which method of control would the observer utilize?

At my command

99
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Which method of control indicates the observer cannot see the target due to weather, terrain, vegetation, intensity of the conflict, or smoke?

Cannot observe

100
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Which method of control would an observer use to specify the specific time rounds impact on the target?

Time on target