Upper Respiratory Disorders

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Last updated 4:55 PM on 4/8/26
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71 Terms

1
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What is the primary definition of epiglottitis?

Acute inflammation of the epiglottis and surrounding supraglottic structures leading to rapid airway obstruction.

2
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What is the most common cause of epiglottitis in children?

Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib).

3
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What is the critical danger of performing a direct throat exam on a patient with suspected epiglottitis?

It can trigger laryngospasm, leading to complete airway obstruction.

4
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How does the onset of epiglottitis compare to croup?

Epiglottitis has a rapid onset (hours), whereas croup develops gradually over 1-2 days.

5
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What are the hallmark signs of epiglottitis?

Rapid onset, high fever, severe sore throat, drooling, muffled 'hot potato' voice, and inspiratory stridor.

6
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What is the 'tripod position' in the context of epiglottitis?

Sitting upright, leaning forward on outstretched arms, chin thrust forward, and mouth open to maximize airway.

7
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What are the 'four D's' associated with epiglottitis?

Dysphagia, Drooling, Dysphonia, and Distress.

8
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What radiographic finding is characteristic of epiglottitis?

The 'thumb sign' on a lateral neck X-ray, indicating a swollen epiglottis.

<p>The 'thumb sign' on a lateral neck X-ray, indicating a swollen epiglottis.</p>
9
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What is the number one priority in the management of epiglottitis?

Airway management.

10
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Why should a patient with epiglottitis be kept calm?

Agitation and crying increase oxygen demand and can worsen airway obstruction.

11
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What is the primary nursing diagnosis for a patient with epiglottitis?

Ineffective Airway Clearance related to supraglottic edema.

12
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What is the purpose of the Hib vaccine?

It prevents most pediatric cases of epiglottitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae type b.

13
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Which radiographic finding distinguishes croup from epiglottitis?

The 'steeple sign' on an AP neck X-ray, indicating a narrowed subglottic space.

14
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What is the definition of croup?

Inflammation of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi (subglottic region) causing a narrowed airway below the vocal cords.

15
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What is the typical age range for croup?

3 months to 3 years, with a peak incidence around 2 years.

16
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What is the most common etiology of croup?

Viral infections, most commonly parainfluenza viruses.

17
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What is the classic triad of symptoms for croup?

Barking 'seal-like' cough, inspiratory stridor, and hoarseness.

18
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How does the fever in croup compare to the fever in epiglottitis?

Croup typically presents with a low-grade fever, whereas epiglottitis presents with a high fever.

19
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Why is it important to allow a child with epiglottitis to be held by a parent?

It reduces agitation and helps protect the airway.

20
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What should be kept at the bedside for a patient with epiglottitis?

Intubation tray and tracheostomy kit.

21
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What is the primary difference in clinical appearance between a patient with croup and one with epiglottitis?

A patient with epiglottitis appears toxic, whereas a patient with croup is generally not toxic-appearing.

22
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What is the standard pharmacological treatment for epiglottitis once the airway is secured?

IV antibiotics (such as ceftriaxone or ampicillin-sulbactam) and IV corticosteroids.

23
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Why is adult epiglottitis often missed?

The larger airway diameter in adults buys time, creating false reassurance despite the potential for progression to complete obstruction.

24
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What is the most distinctive clinical finding of croup?

A barking, seal-like cough.

25
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What radiographic finding is associated with croup?

The 'steeple sign' on an AP neck X-ray, indicating subglottic airway narrowing.

26
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What is the primary nursing intervention for mild croup at home?

Cool mist humidifier or exposure to cool night air, along with keeping the child calm and hydrated.

27
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Why must a patient be observed for 2-4 hours after receiving nebulized racemic epinephrine?

To monitor for rebound worsening of symptoms.

28
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What is the main pharmacological treatment for moderate to severe croup?

Dexamethasone (a corticosteroid) to reduce subglottic edema.

29
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What are the key clinical differences between croup and epiglottitis?

Croup: gradual onset, barking cough, no drooling. Epiglottitis: sudden onset, high fever, drooling, toxic appearance.

30
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What radiographic finding is associated with epiglottitis?

The 'thumb sign' on a lateral neck X-ray, indicating a swollen epiglottis.

31
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Which influenza virus type is the most prevalent and severe?

Type A.

32
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What is the difference between antigenic drift and antigenic shift in influenza?

Antigenic drift involves small, gradual mutations; antigenic shift involves major genetic reassortment that can lead to pandemics.

33
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What are the hallmark symptoms of influenza?

Sudden onset of high fever, severe myalgia, marked fatigue, headache, dry cough, and sore throat.

34
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What is the leading cause of flu-related deaths?

Secondary bacterial pneumonia.

35
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What is the clinical pattern of secondary bacterial pneumonia following influenza?

Initial improvement followed by a worsening condition with a new fever and productive cough.

36
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What is the time window for starting Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) to be effective?

Within 48 hours of symptom onset.

37
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What type of isolation precautions are required for influenza?

Droplet precautions (surgical mask).

38
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Why is aspirin contraindicated in children with viral illnesses like influenza?

It carries a risk of Reye syndrome (hepatic encephalopathy).

39
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Which influenza antiviral should be avoided in patients with asthma or COPD?

Zanamivir (Relenza), as it may trigger bronchospasm.

40
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What is the recommendation for the flu vaccine during pregnancy?

The inactivated flu vaccine is recommended in all trimesters.

41
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Which flu vaccine formulation is contraindicated in pregnant women and immunocompromised patients?

The live attenuated nasal spray (FluMist).

42
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When can a patient with influenza be removed from isolation?

When they have been afebrile for at least 24 hours.

43
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Are antibiotics indicated for the treatment of croup?

No, because croup is viral.

44
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What is the primary difference in onset between the flu and the common cold?

Flu has a sudden onset; the common cold has a gradual onset.

45
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What are the signs of severe croup that require emergency care?

Stridor at rest, significant retractions, cyanosis, or decreased level of consciousness.

46
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What is the causative agent of strep pharyngitis?

Group A β-hemolytic Streptococcus.

47
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What is the primary pathogen associated with bacterial pharyngitis?

Group A Streptococcus (GAS) or Streptococcus pyogenes

48
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What clinical findings help differentiate bacterial pharyngitis from viral pharyngitis?

Absence of cough, rhinorrhea, and hoarseness

49
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What is the gold standard diagnostic test for streptococcal pharyngitis?

Throat culture

50
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What is the primary nursing priority for a patient diagnosed with strep pharyngitis?

Ensuring the patient completes the full 10-day antibiotic course to prevent rheumatic fever

51
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What are the three major complications of untreated Group A Streptococcus infection?

Rheumatic fever, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, and peritonsillar abscess

52
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How is Scarlet Fever clinically distinguished from standard strep pharyngitis?

The presence of an erythrogenic toxin-mediated sandpaper rash

53
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What are the hallmark physical signs of Scarlet Fever?

Sandpaper rash, strawberry tongue, and circumoral pallor

54
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When is a patient with strep pharyngitis no longer considered contagious?

After 24 hours of appropriate antibiotic therapy

55
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What are the signs of a peritonsillar abscess?

Unilateral throat swelling, trismus, 'hot potato' voice, and uvular deviation

56
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What is the primary mechanism of Obstructive Sleep Apnea (OSA)?

Pharyngeal soft tissue collapse during sleep causing repeated airway obstruction

57
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What is the strongest modifiable risk factor for OSA?

Obesity

58
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What is the gold standard diagnostic tool for OSA?

Polysomnography (sleep study)

59
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What does the Apnea-Hypopnea Index (AHI) measure?

The number of apnea or hypopnea events per hour of sleep

60
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What is the first-line treatment for OSA?

Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) therapy

61
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Why is CPAP adherence considered a critical nursing priority?

It is the most common barrier to effective treatment and prevents airway collapse during sleep

62
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What is the primary perioperative risk for patients with OSA?

Increased risk of airway obstruction due to sedation and supine positioning

63
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What tool is used to screen surgical patients for OSA?

STOP-BANG questionnaire

64
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What is a common cause of OSA specifically in children?

Enlarged tonsils or adenoids

65
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What systemic complication can arise from chronic hypoxemia in untreated OSA?

Secondary polycythemia (increased RBC production)

66
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What is the clinical significance of Pastia's lines in Scarlet Fever?

Linear petechiae found in skin folds

67
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How does the timing of Rheumatic Fever differ from Post-strep Glomerulonephritis (PSGN)?

Rheumatic fever occurs 2-4 weeks later; PSGN occurs 1-3 weeks later

68
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What is the recommended nursing action if a rapid strep test is negative but clinical suspicion is high?

Confirm the diagnosis with a throat culture

69
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What are the hallmark daytime symptoms of OSA?

Excessive daytime sleepiness, morning headaches, and difficulty concentrating

70
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What lifestyle modification can significantly improve the AHI in OSA patients?

Weight loss

71
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What is the purpose of the humidifier attachment on a CPAP machine?

To reduce nasal dryness