MLT ASCP BOC Blood Bank

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Last updated 6:39 PM on 4/30/26
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332 Terms

1
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A blood donor has totype: hh, AB. ing anti-A and anti-B antisera., the donor's red cells will type as group US?

O

2
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which of the following is proper procedure for preparation of platelets from Whole blood?

light spin followed by a hard spin

3
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The minimum hemoglobin concentration in a finger-stick from a male blood donor is:

13.0 g/dL

4
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A cause for indefinite deferral of blood donation is:

Positive test for Trypanosoma cruzi

5
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What of the following prospective donors would be accepted for donation?

22-year-old college student who has a temperature of 99.2 degrees F (37.7 C) and states that he feels well, but is nervous about donating

6
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Which of the following constitutes permanent deferral status of a donor?

Confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously

7
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According to AABB standards, which of the following donors may be accepted as a blood donor?

Spontaneous abortion at 2 months of pregnancy, 3 months previously

8
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In order to be a plateletpheresis donor, the platelet count must be at least:

150,000/ul

9
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Prior to blood donation, the intended venipuncture site must be cleaned with a scrub solution containing:

Providone iodine

10
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A donor who has just donated 2 units of Apheresis Red Blood Cells will be deferred from further blood donation for a minimum of how many weeks?

16

11
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Which of the following infectious agents relies solely on donor questioning to avoid transmission from transfused blood products?

Plasmodium falciparum

12
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Which of the following practices at the time of blood cell collection helps minimize bacterial contamination of platelet products?

Diversion pouch

13
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According to AABB standards, what is the minimum hemoglobin level for an autologous donor?

11.0 g/dL

14
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What is/are the minimum pretransfusion testing requirement(s) for autologous donations collected and transfused by the same facility?

ABO and Rh typing only

15
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Which of the following must be included on the label of a unit of Red Blood Cells Leukocytes Reduced?

Unique collection facility identifier

16
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All donor blood testing must include:

serological test for syphilis

17
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The test that is currently used to detect donors who are infected with the AIDS virus is:

Anti-HIV-1/2

18
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Which of the following practices has been useful in reducing the incidence of Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI)?

Use of Fresh Frozen Plasma from male donors

19
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Which of the following infectious agents must be tested for using a nucleic acid testing (NAT) assay?

HBV

20
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What is the primary reason that infectious agents can be transmitted following blood transfusion?

Donor in the window period of early infection

21
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The transport temperature of Red Blood Cells Leukocytes Reduced is:

1-10 degrees C

22
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The transport temperature for Apheresis Platelets is:

20-24 degrees C

23
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A unit of RBC's expiring in 35 days is split into 5 small aliquots using a sterile pediatric quad set and a sterile connecting device. Each aliquot must be labeled as expiring in:

35 days

24
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When platelets are stored on a rotator set on an open bench top, the ambient air temperature must be recorded:

Every 4 hours

25
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Which of the following is the correct storage temperature for the component listed?

Fresh Frozen Plasma -20 C

26
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Six units of RBC's are issued to the OR at 9am in a cooler, validated to maintain a temperature of 1-10 degrees C for 2 hours. 40 minutes later, the cooler containing the units of blood is returned to the blood bank as surgery was cancelled. What should be done with these units?

Inspect units and established that appropriate temperature has been maintained

27
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An acceptable storage temperature for RBC's, frozen is:

80 degrees C

28
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RBC's leukocytes reduced must be stored at:

1-6 degrees C

29
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If the seal is entered on a unit of RBC's stored at 1- 6Cwhat is the maximum allowable storage period in hours?

24 hours

30
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Cryoprecipitated AHF must be stored at:

< or equal to -18 C

31
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Plasma, frozen within 24 hours after phlebotomy (PF24) and thawed for transfusions has an expiration of:

24 hours

32
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Apheresis platelets must be stored at:

20-24 degrees C

33
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Cryoprecipitated AHF, if maintained in the frozen state at -18*C or below, has a shelf life of:

12 months

34
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Thawed plasma must be stored at:

1-6*C

35
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Upon inspection, a unit of Apheresis Platelets is noted to have visible clots, but otherwise appears normal. The technologist should:

Quarantine for Gram stain and culture

36
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Upon expiration, a unit of thawed plasma frozen within 24 hours (PF24) is converted to thawed plasma. This thawed plasma can be stored for an additional:

4 days

37
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The transfusion service is preparing aliquots from a unit of RBC's leukocytes reduced with the aid of a sterile connecting device for a pediatric patient. When checking the weld for one of these aliquots, it is noted that the weld is incomplete and leaking. This unit is then released with an acceptable weld. What will the expiration date of this unit be?

24 hours

38
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During the preparation of platelets from whole blood, the blood should be:

cooled towards 20-24 C

39
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Red blood cells leukocytes must be prepared by a method known to reduce the leukocyte count to:

<5.0x106

40
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A unit of RBC's that expires in 32 days has just been irradiated. The expiration date of this unit will:

be reduced by 4 days

41
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Cryoprecipitated AHF must be transfused within what period of time following thawing and pooling?

4 hours

42
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According to AABB standards, Fresh Frozen Plasma must be infused within what period of time following thawing?

24 hours

43
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CryoprecipitateD AHF

is indicated for fibrinogen deficiencies

44
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Which apheresis platelets product should be irradiated?

a directed donation given by a mother for her son.

45
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irradiation of a unit of red blood cells is done to prevent the replication of donor

lymphocytes

46
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Plastic bag overwrap are recommended when thawing units of FFP in 37 degree C water baths because they prevent:

c) the entry ports from becoming contaminated with water

47
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Which of the following blood components must be prepared within 8 hours after phlebotomy?

b) fresh frozen plasma

48
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an important determinant of platelet viability during storage is:

plasma pH

49
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According to AABB standards, at least 90% of all Apheresis platelets units tested shall contain a minimum of how many platelets?

3 x 10^11 platelets

50
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According to AABB standards, platelets prepared from whole blood shall at least:

5.5 x 10 *10 platelets per unit in at least 90% of the unit tested

51
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According to AABB standards, what minimum pH required for Apheresis platelet at the end of the storage period?

6.2

52
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what percentage of red blood cells must be retained when preparing red blood cells leukocytes reduced?

85 %

53
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in a quality assurance program, cryoprecipitated AHF must contain a minimum of how many international units of Factor VIII?

80 IU or higher

54
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The linked HLA genes on each chromosome constitute a(n):

haplotype

55
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Most blood group systems are inherited as

autosomal codominant

56
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The mating of an Xg(a+) man and an Xg(a-) woman will only produce:

Xg(a-) sons and Xg(a+) daughters

57
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which phenotype could not result from the mating of a Jk(a+b+) female and a Jk(a-b+) male?

Jk(a-b-)

58
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which of the following phenotypes is the result of homozygous inheritance of the corresponding genes?

Fy(a-b+)

59
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which of the following antibodies is usually clinically insignificant?

anti-P1

60
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an individual red blood cells give the following reactions with Rh anti-sera?

Anti-D=4+

Anti-C=3+

Anti-E=0

Anti-c=3+

Anti-e=3+

Rh control=0

the individual's most probable genotype is:

DCe/dce

61
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an individual has been sensitized to the k antigen and has produced anti-k. what is the most probable Kell system genotype?

KK

62
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a mother has the red cell phenotype D+C+E-c-e+ with anti-c (titer of 32 at AHG) in her serum. The father has the phenotype D+C+E-c+e+. The baby is Rh-negative and not affected with hemolytic diseases of the newborn. What is the baby's most probably Rh genotype?

r'r'

63
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in an emergency situation, Rh-negative red cells are transfused into an Rh-positive person of the genotype CDe/CDe. The first antibody most likely to develop is:

anti-c

64
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data: anti-C (+) anti-D (+) anti-E (+) anti-c (+) anti-e (+)

R1R2

65
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a patient's red cells type as follows:anti-D (4+) anti-C (0) anti-E (0)

R0R0

66
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The red cells of a nonsecretor (se/se) will most likely type as:

Le(a+b-)

67
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which of the following phenotypes will react with anti-f?

rr

68
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a patient's RBC gave the following reactions:anti-D (+) anti-C (+) anti-E (+) anti-c (+) anti-e (+) anti-f (0)

the most probable genotype of this patient is:

R1R2

69
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A woman types as Rh-positive. She has an anti-c titer of 32 at AHG. Her baby has a negative DAT and is not affected by hemolytic disease of the newborn. What is the father's most likely Rh phenotype?

R1r

70
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which of the following red cell typings are most commonly found in the African American donor population?

Fy(a-b-)

71
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A donor is tested with Rh antisera, with the following results

:Anti-D +

Anti-C+

Anti-E+

anti-c+

anti-e +Rh control 0 What is the probable Rh genotype?

R1r

72
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which of the following is the immunodominant sugar responsible for the A antigen?

N-acetylglucosamine

73
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which of the following is considered to be a high prevalence antigen?

Vel

74
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the reason that group O individuals have the most amount of H antigen on their red cells compared to other ABO phenotypes is:

H antigen is left unchanged by the absence of A and/or B transferase enzymes

75
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given the following serologic reactions, what is the most likely A subgroup?

anti-A = 2+

mfanti-B = 0

anti-A,B = 2+mf

A1 cells = 1+

B cells = 4+

O cells = 0

A3

76
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the enzyme responsible for conferring H activity on the red cell membrane is alpha-:

L-fucosyl transferase

77
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even in the absence of prior transfusion or pregnancy, individuals with the Bombay phenotype (Oh) will always have naturally occurring:

anti-H

78
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which of the following antibodies in the Lutheran system is most likely to be IgM and detected as a direct agglutinin?

anti-Lu^a

79
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antibodies from which of the following blood group systems are notorious for causing delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?

Kidd

80
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isoimmunization to platelet antigen HPA-1a and the placental transfer of maternal antibodies would be expected to cause newborn:

thrombocytopenia

81
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what antigens would be found in the saliva of an individual with the genotype Sese Lele AO HH?

Le^a, Le^b, A, H

82
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which of the following genes is not in the MHC class I region?

HLA-DR

83
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The phenomenon of an Rh-positive person whose serum contains anti-D is best explained by:

missing antigen epitopes

84
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when the red cells of an individual fial to react with anti-U, they usually fail to react with:

anti-S

85
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which of the following red cell antigens are found on glycophorin-A?

M, N

86
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Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) is associated with antibody specificity toward which of the following?

P antigen

87
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which of the following is a characteristic of anti-i?

found in the serum of patients with infectious mononucleosis

88
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cold agglutinin disease is associated with an antibody specificity toward which of the following?

I

89
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which of the following is a characteristic of anti-i?

temperature or 4 C

90
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in chronic granulomatous disease (CGD), granulocyte function is impaired. An association exists between this clinical condition and a depression of which of the following antigens?

Kell

91
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the antibodies of the Kidd blood group system:

react best by the indirect antiglobulin test

92
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Proteolytic enzyme treatment of red cells usually destroys which antigen?

Fy^a

93
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Anti-Fy^a is:

capable of causing hemolytic transfusion reactions

94
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Resistance to malaria is best associated with which of the following blood groups?

Duffy

95
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anti-K is identified in a patient's serum. If random crossmatches are performed on 10 donor units, approximately how many would be expected to be compatible?

9

96
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Four units of blood are needed for elective surgery. The patients serum contains anti-C, anti-e, anti-FYa, and anti-JKb. Which of the following would be the best source of donor blood?

rare donor registry

97
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a patient is group O, Rh-negative with anti-D and anti-K in her serum. What percentage of the general Caucasian donor population would be compatible with this patient?

6.0

98
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which of the following Rh antigens has the highest frequency in Caucasians?

e

99
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the Kell (K1) antigen is:

strongly immunogenic

100
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what is the approximate probability of finding compatible blood among random Rh-positive units for a patient who has anti-c and anti-K? (consider that 20% of Rh-positive donors lack c and 90% lack K)

18%