Anatomy and Phys

e. Using devices that measure heart rare and respiration

All of the following would be methods of studying anatomy except
a. dissection of organs
b. examination of tissues with a microscope
c. investigating the chambers of the heart
d. identifying the features of the bones of the arm
e. using devices that measure heart rate and respiration

d. chemical level, cellular level, tissue level, organ level, organismal level

Place the following levels of organization from the simplest to the most complex level of organization
a. chemical level, organ level, cellular level, tissue level, organismal level
b. cellular level, tissue level, organ level, chemical level, organismal level
c. chemical level, tissue level, cellular level, organismal level, organ level
d. chemical level, cellular level, tissue level, organ level, organismal level

a. an organ will be composed of the same tissues

All of the following are true of an organ except
a. an organ will be composed of the same tissues
b. organs have specific functions and shapes
c. organs make up systems
d. an organ can contain epithelial tissue, muscle tissue, connective tissue, and nervous tissue

1. responsiveness
2. movement

Feeling the presence of a mosquito biting your arm is an example of _______
Itching the mosquito bite is an example of ________

b. a relatively stable internal environment within limits

Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains
a. the lowest possible energy use
b. a relatively stable internal environment within limits
c. a static state with no deviation from preset points
d. a changing state within an unlimited range

c. Interstitial fluid

Which body fluid fills narrow spaces between cells and tissues
a. lymph
b. blood plasma
c. interstitial fluid
d. intracellular fluid
e. vitreous body

b. D, A, E, B, C

Place the events in correct order
A-input about the controlled condition is sent to the control center
B-If needed, the control center sends output to an effector
C-The effector can produce a response that helps maintain homeostasis
D-A receptor monitors a controlled condition
E-The control center evaluates the value of the controlled condition compared to the set point
a. D, E, B, A, C
b. D, A, E, B, C
c. A, E, D, B, C
d. A, D, E, C, B

d. Increasing strength of uterine contractions in response to cervical strength
f. depolarization causes sodium channels to open and the opening of sodium channel causes the membrane to depolarize

Which body process is controlled using a positive feedback loop? Select all that apply
a. Decreasing blood glucose in response to elevated blood glucose
b. Decreasing blood calcium in response to elevated blood calcium
c. Decreasing body temperature in response to elevated body temperature
d. Increasing strength of uterine contractions in response to cervical stretch
e. Decreasing heart rate in response to elevated blood pressure
f. Depolarization causes sodium channels to open and the opening of sodium channel causes the membrane to depolarize

a. Stimulates changes that reverse the direction of the stimulus
b. Involves control centers in the nervous or endocrine systems
c. Important in maintaining homeostasis
f. Regulates conditions in body that remain fairly stable over long periods

What are common characteristics of a negative feedback loop? Select all that apply
a. Stimulates changes that reverse the direction of the stimulus
b. Involves control centers in the nervous or endocrine systems
c. Important in maintaining homeostasis
d. A self-amplifying cycle where a physiological change leads to even greater change in the same direction
e. Rate of a process increases as the concentration of the product increases
f. Regulates conditions in body that remain fairly stable over long periods

d. Endocrine and nervous system

The two systems most responsible for maintaining homeostasis are the
a. Respiratory and Cardiovascular system
b. Muscular and skeletal system
c. Integumentary and immune system
d. Endocrine and nervous system

b. Coronal

Name the plane that divides the body into an anterior and a posterior portion
a. Sagittal
b. Coronal
c. Transverse
d. Midsagittal

b. Transverse

Cutting the body in half at the diaphragm, would create the thoracic cavity and the abdominopelvic cavity. What plane would create these halves?
a. Midsagittal
b. Transverse
c. Oblique
d. Sagittal
e. Frontal

d. Anterior

Choose the directional term that would make the following sentence correct? The sternum is _______ to the heart
a. Posterior
b. Lateral
c. Superior
d. Anterior
e. Inferior

b. The student will have four parts, divided vertically into anterior and posterior, and superior and inferior

During a cadaver lab, the professor requests the students to cut the head with a transverse plane a coronal plane. Describe the results
a. The student will have two halves, right and left
b. The student will have four parts, divided vertically into anterior and posterior, and superior and inferior
c. The student will have four parts, divided into right and left, and anterior and posterior
d. The student will have two halves , superior and inferior
e. The student will have two halves, anterior and posterior

e. Palm of the hand

Which structure or region could one clearly see when you are viewing the anterior side of an individual standing in the standard anatomical position
a. popliteal region of the knee
b. shoulder blade
c. gluteal region
d. plantar surface of the foot
e. palm of the hand

c. mediastinum

The pericardial cavity is located inside the
a. parietal pleura
b. visceral pleura
c. mediastinum
d. visceral peritoneum
e. parietal peritoneum

1. adheres to the outside of the heart
2. lines the wall of the abdominopelvic cavity
3. lines the wall of the chest cavity

Match the serous membrane with its location
1.Visceral pericardium_______
2.Parietal peritoneum_______
3. Parietal pleural_______

c. left lumbar

Which region is both inferior and lateral to the epigastric
a. umbilical
b. right hypochondriac
c. left lumbar
d. hypogastric

c. The right hypochondriac region would contain part of the liver

Which of the following statements are correct
a. the right hypochondriac region would contain part of the large intestine
b. the umbilical region would contain the testes
c. the right hypochondriac region would contain part of the liver
d. the epigastric region would contain the small intestine

d. Radiography

Which medical imaging technique would you use to determine if a bone is broken
a. endoscopy
b. ultrasound
c. radionuclide scanning
d. radiography

d. carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen

Ninety-six percent of the body mass is made from
a. calcium, phosphorous, oxygen, and nitrogen
b. carbon, hydrogen, carbon dioxide, and nitrogen
c carbon, calcium, hydrogen, and nitrogen
d. carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen

c. forms backbone of all organic molecules

Which of the following describes the major significance of the element carbon in the human body
a. ionized form makes body fluids acidic
b. constituent of water
c. forms backbone of all organic molecules
d. required to harden the structure of the bones and teeth
e. ionized form is the part of hemoglobin that carries oxygen

d. Neutrons

Among isotopes of any particular element, the number of________ can vary, and therefore the mass number of the element will vary.
a. protons
b. ions
c. electrons
d. neutrons
e. orbitals

e. polar covalent bonds

The chemical bond that forms between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms making up a water molecule are called
a. atomic bonds
b. ionic bonds
c. nonpolar covalent bonds
d. hydrogen bonds
e. polar covalent bonds

d. Hydrogen bonds

What type of chemical bond commonly forms between adjacent water molecules?
a. ionic bonds
b. nonpolar covalent bonds
c. covalent bonds
d. hydrogen bonds
e. polar covalent bonds

c. Metabolism

Which of the following is a general term used to refer to the sum of all the chemical occurring in the body?
a. catabolism
b. anabolism
c. metabolism
d. homeostasis
e. catalysis

a. Enzyme

Which substance lowers a chemical reaction's activation energy?
a. enzyme
b. cholesterol
c. glycogen
d. adenine
e. water

a. Solvent

When table sugar, sucrose, dissolves in water, the water is the
a. solvent
b. solute

e. Hydrophilic

A solute that readily dissolves in water is
a. hydrozone
b. hydrostatic
c. hydrophobic
d. lipophilic
e. hydrophilic

c. Acidic

A solution with a pH value less than 7 is
a. alkaline
b. basic
c. acidic
d. concentrated
e. neutral

a. buffers

Weak acids and weak bases that can add or remove protons (H^+) to fluids in the body, thereby helping to keep pH levels at homeostasis levels, are called
a. buffers
b. hydrophobic compounds
c. covalent compounds
d. colloids
e. suspensions

d. Proteins

Of the major types of organic compounds found in the body, which type is used to make enzymes, to make structural molecules such as collagen, and nearly always has compels, 3-dimensional structures?
a. carbohydrates
b. lipids
c. cholesterol
d. proteins
e. nucleic acids

a. True

ATP is a compound used by the body to store chemical energy harvested from other metabolic processes, such as the breakdown of nutrients. This energy can be released to fuel other process, such as the synthesis of other molecules. The usual way in which energy is released from ATP is by the hydrolysis of the last phosphate group in a chain three phosphates
a. True
b. False

c. carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen

Carbohydrates are composed of
a. sodium, hydrogen, and oxygen
b. calcium, carbon, and oxygen
c. carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen
d. potassium, sodium, and chlorine

c. They are a major form of energy storage

Which of the following is not true about phospholipids?
a. They contain a glycerol backbone
b. The tail groups are nonpolar
c. They are a major form of energy storage
d. The molecule is an important part of cell membranes
e. The head group is polar

c. Lipids

These can protect and insulate, serve as building blocks for some hormones, provide and store energy, and provide cell membrane components
a. Proteins
b. Carbohydrates
c. Lipids
d. Inorganic compounds

d. amino acids

Proteins are chains of
a. fatty acids
b. glucose
c. vitamins
d. amino acids

a. a sequence of amino acids linked by peptide bonds

The primary structure of a protein consists of
a. a sequence of amino acids linked by peptide bonds
b. three dimensional folded conformation
c. beta-pleated sheets
d. alpha helices
e. the overall folded conformation of the proteins subunits

a. contractile

This type of protein is involved with shortening of muscle cells to produce movement
a. contractile
b. regulatory
c. transport
d. structural
e. catalytic

c. nucleotide

Which monomer is used to build RNA and DNA
a. amino acid
b. fatty acids
c. nucleotide
d. monosaccharide
e. glycerol

b. organelles
c. cytosol

What is cytoplasm's composition? select all that apply
a. pseudopods
b. organelles
c. cytosol
d. flagella
e. plasma membrane

b. phospholipids, cholesterol, and glycolipids

The three main components of the lipid bilayer portion of a plasma membrane are
a. phospholipids, cholesterol, and proteins
b. phospholipids, cholesterol, and glycolipids
c. proteins, cholesterol, and fatty acids
d. cholesterol, triglycerides, and glycolipids
e. phospholipids, glycoproteins, and water

b. concentration gradient/electrical gradient

Which of the following pairs of terms best describes the concept of membrane potential?
a. diffusion/facilitated diffusion
b. concentration gradient/electrical gradient
c. passive processes/active processes
d. low concentration/ high concentration
e. selective permeability/osmosis

b. cell identity markers

Membrane glycoproteins and glycolipids that enable cells to recognize potentially dangerous foreign cells serve as_______
a. macrophages
b. cell identity markers
c. linkers
d. ion channels

d. A cell placed in a hypotonic solution would undergo crenation

Which one of these statements is incorrect
a. A red blood cell places in an isotonic solution would stay the same shape
b. A cell place in an hypertonic solution would undergo crenation
c. A cell places in an hypotonic solution would swell and perhaps burst
d. A cell placed in a hypotonic solution would undergo crenation

a. both move material in vesicles

Endocytosis and exocytosis
a. both move material in vesicles
b. are both powered by ionic gradients
c. both move materials in the same direction
d. are both forms of passive transport

a. True

Simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion differ in that facilitated diffusion requires assistance of a membrane protein to move substances across a membrane
a. Ture
b. False

d. amount of ATP available

Which of the following does NOT influence the rate of diffusion of a chemical across a plasma membrane?
a. mass of the diffusing chemical
b. concentration gradient of the chemical across the membrane
c. distance that the chemical has to diffuse
d. amount of ATP available

b. Simple diffusion

Which of the following is the transport process by which gases, like O2 an CO2, move through a membrane?
a. endocytosis
b. simple diffusion
c. active transport
d. secondary active transport
e. osmosis

b. 1, 4, 5, 6, 2, 3

Place the events of the sodium potassium pump in order
1. carrier proteins bind to sodium
2. potassium binds to the carrier which causes protein to lose the phosphate
3. loss of phosphate causes potassium to be moved into the cell
4. ATP adds a phosphate to the protein
5. addition of the phosphate causes the protein to move sodium out of the cell
6. potassium can bind to the protein

a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
b. 1, 4, 5, 6, 2, 3
c. 6, 2, 3, 1, 4, 5
d. 3, 2, 6, 5, 4, 1

with, agaisnt

In the sodium glucose symporter, sodium moves_______ its concentration gradient. Moving glucose________ its concentration gradient is a form of active transport

c. transcytosis

Which of the following transport processes moves substances through cells using endocytosis on one side of a cell and exocytosis on the opposite side of the cell
a. secondary active transport
b. phagocytosis
c. transcytosis
d. simple diffusion
e. osmosis

c. to provide a large surface area for the many embedded enzymes involved with aerobic metabolism

Why do mitochondria need the many folded inner membranes called the cristae
1. these membranes are used to store replacement membrane for the mitochondrial surface
b. these membranes are the location for glycolysis in the cell
c. to provide a large surface area for the many embedded enzymes involved with aerobic metabolism
d. to provide a large surface area for detoxification of potentially harmful substances
e. to provide a large surface area for anaerobic metabolism

d. rough endoplasmic reticulum

Which of the following membrane-enclosed organelles is the site of synthesis of membrane proteins and secretory proteins?
a. golgi complex
b. lysosome
c. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
d. rough endoplasmic reticulum
e. nucleus

d. mitochodrion

What other organelle besides besides the nucleus contains DNA?
a. centrosome
b. ribosomes
c. golgi complex
d. mitochondrion
e. lysosome

a. help organize coiling and folding of the DNA

What is the major function of histones?
a. help organize coiling and folding of the DNA
b. synthesis of ribosomal subunits
c. degrade faulty proteins in the nucleus
d. needed for double helix formation of the DNA
e. control passage of substances through nuclear envelope

a. messenger
b. ribosomal
c. transfer

______ RNA is translated by ribosomes and codes for the amino acids in the protein. _________ RNA combines with protein to from the 2 subunits. _________ RNA moves amino acids to the ribosomes for protein synthesis

a. 46
b. 23

If there are 23 pairs of chromosomes in a human cell, ________ chromosomes will be present in each cell during prophase I of miosis. ________ chromosomes will be present in each cell during prophase

a. Half

Haploid cells differ from diploid cells in that haploid cells have _______ the number of chromosomes as diploid cells
a. half
b. twice
c. three times
d. four times

e. apoptosis, necrosis

An orderly, genetically programmed cell death is referred to as________, while disorganized pathological cell death is referred as __________.
a. synapsis, necrosis
b. apoptosis, synapsis
c. necrosis, apoptosis
d. necrosis, synapsis
e. apoptosis, necrosis

d. nervous system

Of the four basic tissue types, which one is able to generate electrical signals that can trigger muscles contractions or glandular secretions?
a. epithelial tissue
b. connective tissue
c. muscular tissue
d. nervous system

a. nervous
b. epithelial
c. connective
d. muscle

Which tissues is found in the stomach? select all that apply.
a. nervous
b. epithelial
c. connective
d. muscle

a. Tight junctions

If you wanted to design a tissue that restricted the movement of water and other molecules between adjacent cells, which type of junction would you use to connect the cells?
a. tight junctions
b. gap junctions
c. desmosomes
d. hemidesmosomes

d. cartilage

Which of these is avascular?
a. skeletal muscle
b. nervous tissue
c. bone
d. cartilage

a. Epithelial tissue
b. desmosome junctions
c. gap junctions
d. apical
e. basal
f. hemidesmosome junctions

_______ covers and protects surfaces inside and outside of the body.
_________ help secure most of the epidermal cells together through intermediate filaments, while _________ allow communication among the epidermal cells. This tissue will have a(n) __________ surface that is at the superficial layer, and a(n) _________ surface that is attached to the basement membrane by ___________.

c. keratinized stratified squamous epithelium is adapted for absorption

Which of the following statement is incorrect?
a. simple squamous epithelium is found in thin layers so substances can pass through them rapidly
b. transitional epithelium change shape to allow structures such as the urinary bladder to distend and collapse
c. keratinized stratified squamous epithelium is adapted for absorption
d. ciliated simple columnar epithelium moves mucus by ciliary action

c. simple cuboidal epithelium

Which type of tissue is found in the tubules of kidneys, the covering of the ovaries, and also in glandular tissues such as the thyroid gland? its function is absorption and secretion
a. simple squamous epithelium
b. dense irregular connective tissue
c. simple cuboidal epithelium
d. stratified cuboidal epithelium
e. reticular connective tissue

e. simple squamous epithelium

Which epithelial tissue is found lining the kidneys glomerulus, and performs blood filtration?
a. stratified cuboidal epithelium
b. simple columnar epithelium
c. simple cuboidal epithelium
d. stratified squamous epithelium
e. simple squamous epithelium

e. exocrine glands secrete their products directly into the blood stream through ducts

Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. endocrine glands secrete products directly into the blood stream
b. merocrine glands release products directly from the cell in secretory vesicles by exocytosis
c. apocrine glands release products by pinching off the part of the cell containing them
d. holocrine glands release products by rupturing the cell
e. exocrine glands secrete their products directly into the blood stream through ducts

c. holocrine

Which type of exocrine gland are sebaceous (oil) glands?
a. merocrine
b. apocrine
c. holocrine
d. enoplasmic glands
e. vesicular glands

a. reticular
b. collagen
c. elastic

Match the appropriate fiber with its function
________: modified collagen fivers used for reinforcement
_________: strongest and most abundant protein
__________: allow extensibility, usually without breaking

a. reticular connective tissue
b. elastic connective tissue
c. cartilage
d. lymph

Match the type of tissue to its classification
loose connective tissue:___________
dense connective tissue:___________
supporting connective tissue:__________
liquid connective tissue:__________

d. hyaline cartilage

What connective tissue is replaces by bone in the epiphyseal plates?
a. elastic connective tissue
b. dense regular connective tissue
c. dense irregular connective tissue
d. hyaline cartilage
e. fibrocartilage

a. reticular

Which type of connective tissue provides the supporting framework for the liver, lymph nodes, and red bone marrow
a. reticular
b. loose
c. areolar
d. dense regular
e. adipose

a. hyaline cartilage
e. dense regular connective tissue

Anne suffers from Ehlers-Danlos, a rare inherited disorder of connective tissue, specifically affecting collagen fibers. Because many connective tissues contain collagen throughout the body, she has issues with many tissues, joints, and skin. The ligaments and tendons are loose and heal poorly when stretched too much. Her kneecap pops out of the groove a lot. What specific connective tissue is being affected? select all that apply.
a. hyaline cartilage
b. areolar connective tissue
c. reticular connective tissue
d. elastic connective tissue
e. dense regular connective tissue

a. mucous
b. serous
c. cutaneous

Math the membrane with the appropriate description
_________: lines structure that open to the outside of the body. Compose of stratified squamous, nonciliated simple columnar and ciliated pseudostratified columnar. _________: reduces friction but does not contain glands. Composed of simple squamous. ___________: protects against external factors. Composed of keratinized stratified squamous

a. skeletal

Which type of muscle tissue is under the voluntary control of out nervous system. We can consciously control the movement of this type of muscle tissue
a. skeletal
b. cardiac
c. smooth

d. neuroglial cells

Support electrical excitable cells found in the nervous system are called
a. dendrites
b. neurons
c. muscle cells
d neuroglial cells
e. axon

a. it is avascular

Why is cartilage slow to heal?
a. it is avascular
b. chondroblasts do not undergo mitosis
c. cartilage is not well-innervated
d. its matric is solid

b. fibrosis

Which term describes scar tissue formation?
a. differentiation
b. fibrosis
c. granulation
d. wound dehiscence

d. keratinized stratified squamous

Which type of epithelium makes up the epidermis
a. stratified cuboidal
b. stratified columnar
c. nonkeratinized stratified squamous
d. keratinized stratified squamous

e. stratum corneum

Which layer consists on average of 25 to 30 layers of flattened dead keratinocytes
a. stratum basale
b. stratum spinosum
c. stratum granulosum
d. stratum lucidum
e. stratum corneum

e. stratum basale

This layer is attached to the basement membrane by hemidesmosomes and to other cells by desmosomes
a. stratum corneum
b. stratum lucidum
c. stratum spinosum
d. stratum granulosum
e. stratum basale

c. intraepidermal macrophages

In a skin infection, which cell will take up and process microbial antigens?
a. tactile epithelial cells
b. stem cells
c. intraepidermal macrophages
d. melanocytes

b. d, b, a, c

Put the events of keratinization in order
A. accumulate keratohyalin granules
B. cells increase in size, some retain ability to divide
C. cell membrane thickens. Cells imbedded in lipid matric
D. cells within this layer proliferate

a. d, b, c, a
b. d, b, a, c
c. a, b, d, c
d. b, d, a, c

d. 1 and 3

Choose the following statements that describe keratin
1. keratin is a tough, fibrous protein
2. keratin is used for pigmenting skin
3. keratin helps protect the skin
4. keratin participates in immune responses
5. keratin protects the skin from UV light

a. 1, 3, 4, 5
b, 3 and 5
c. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
d. 1 and 3
e. 2, 4, 5

c. melanin is necessary for the production of vitamin D by the skin

Which of the following is not a correct statement about melanin?
a. granules of melanin are produced and exported by melanocytes
b. melanin granules are the source of skin pigmentation
c. melanin is necessary for the production of vitamin D by the skin
d. melanin pigment protects DNA from damaging UV light
e. melanin granules are taken up by keratinocytes

b. False

Differences in skin pigmentation are due to the number of melanocytes in the basal layer of the skin. People with darker skin have many more melanocytes that people with paler skin
a. True
b. False

a. True

Epidermal ridges are formed by downward projection of the epidermis into the dermis between the dermal papillae of the papillary region
a. True
b. False

c. contraction of arrector pili muscles

Goosebumps are caused by
a. stimulation of hair root plexus
b. secretions from the sudoriferous glands
c. contraction of arrector pili muscles
d. contraction of dermal papillae
e. secretions from the sebaceous gland

e. White

The amount and kind of melanin present in the cortex and medulla of a hair shaft determines hair color. When melanin is replaced by air bubbles in the shaft, which is the resulting hair color?
a. black
b. brown
c. gray
d. blond
e. white

a. they begin to function at puberty

Which is not true about eccrine/merocrine sweat glands
a. they begin to function at puberty
b. they are found throughout the body
c. their excretory duct terminate at the surface of the epidermis
d. they regulate body temperature

a. hair shaft
b. medulla
c. cortex
d. matrix
e. cuticle

Match the term with the best description
physical portion of the hair that is visible and extends above the surface of skin a.__________
central area of hair b._________
consists of hardened cells containing keratin, bulk portion of hair c._______
actively dividing cells within hair, contains pigmenting producing cells d.________
consists of hardened cells containing keratin, outer layer of hair e._______

a. nail matrix
b. nail bed
c. lunula
d. cuticle

Match the term with the best description
a. ________: actively dividing cells of the nails
b._________: hardened epithelial tissue above the hyponychium
c.________: crescent shaped area that appears white due to thickened epithelial
d.__________: portion of the stratum corneum that grows onto the nail body

a. epidermal ridges
b. numerous sudoriferous glands
c. numerous sensory receptors

Which features are present in thick skin? select all that apply
a. epidermal ridges
b. numerous sudoriferous glands
c. numerous sensory receptors
d. numerous sebaceous glands

c. calcium

Vitamin D, following activation in the skin, is converted to the hormone calcitriol by enzymes in the liver and kidneys. People in northern climates who may not get adequate sun exposure can become deficient in vitamin D. What mineral would be especially affected by this?
a. ion
b. iodine
c. calcium
d. magnesium
e. sodium

b. inflammation, migration, proliferation, maturation

Which is the correct sequence of phases for deep wound healing?
a inflammation, proliferation, migration, maturation
b. inflammation, migration, proliferation, maturation
c. proliferation, inflammation, migration, maturation
d. proliferation, migration, inflammation, maturation

a. ectoderm

From which of the primary germ layers of the embryo does the epidermis of the skin develop?
a. ectoderm
b. endoderm
c. both endoderm and ectoderm
d. mesoderm

b. this may result in dry, broken skin and increase likelihood of infection

With aging, the size of the sebaceous glands decrease. Why might this be problematic?
a. this may result in a decrease in langerhans cell number
b. this may result in dry, broken skin and increase likelihood of infection
c. this may result in oily skin and increase likelihood of falls and accidents
d. this may result in inability to thermoregulate and increase likelihood of heat related illnesses

a. skin type
c. age
e. immunological status
f. family history
g. sun exposure

Which of the following are considered a risk factor for skin cancer? select all that apply
a. skin type
b. weight
c. age
d. nutrition
e. immunological status
f. family history
g. sun exposure