equine infectious pq's - edit from cli | Quizlet

The mainstay of Equine Infectious Anemia control is:

a. vaccinations

b. antibiotic therapy

c. isolation and culling of infected animals

d. all the aforementioned

c. isolation and culling of infected animals

Clinical signs of strangles are

a. fever. cough, serous nasal discharge

b. ecchymosis, swellings, fever

c. fever, serous nasal discharge, conjunctivitis, cough

d. fever, purulent nasal discharge, abscessation of the lymph nodes of the head

d. fever, purulent nasal discharge, abscessation of the lymph nodes of the head

The time from wound inoculation by c.tetani to development of first clinical signs can range:

a. From 1-7 days

b. From 3-6 months

c. From 1-60 days

d. From months to years

c. From 1-60 days

Clinical manifestation described as slow-motion eating and "pipe smoking" are characteristic for:

a. WNF

b. EEE

c. BD - Borna disease

d. Rabies

c. BD - Borna disease

Equilis Tetanus vaccination?

2 vaccines, 3-6w apart, revax at 17m, then 24m

Characteristic change in the morphology of peripheral blood, that could be detected in all stages of Equine infectious anemia and will be present in early stages is:

a. Hypoalbuminemia

b. Hypergammaglobulinemia

c. Thrombocytopenia

d. Increase of total protein

c. Thrombocytopenia

Peripheral blood smear showed morulae within monocytes, which are characteristic for:

a. Anaplasma phagocytophilum infection

b. Neorickettsia risticii infection

c. WNF

d. Borna disease

b. Neorickettsia risticii infection

(if morulae in neutrophils = Anaplasma phagocytophilum infection)

Madariaga virus is a type of?

a. WEE

b. VEE

c. JE

d. EEE

d. EEE

Clinical manifestation of Botulism in horses correlate with:

a. Action of bacteria in CNS

b. Action of neurotoxin in CNS

c. Action of spores in CNS

d. Action of bacteria, spores and neurotoxins in CNS

b. Action of neurotoxin in CNS

Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis (EPM) occurs:

a. worldwide

b. only in North America

c. only in Africa

d. only in Europe

b. only in north america (think the opossum is the main host and this is only in N. america)

Is there a registered horse vaccine against fungal infections?

a. Sometimes

b. Only in endemic regions

c. No

d. Yes

b. only in endemic regions

Which statement is true for vaccination of horses against Equine Viral Arteritis?

a. vaccines are available in some European countries and USA

b. vaccines are not used due to serious side effects

c. many commercial vaccines are available worldwide

d. effective vaccines are not available

a. vaccines are available in some European countries and USA

Which statement is true for vaccination of horses against herpesvirus infection in horses?

● Effective inactivated vaccine is available in some countries

● Vaccines are not used due to serious side effects

● Many commercial vaccines are available worldwide

● Effective vaccines are not available

Effective inactivated vaccine available in some countries

Commercially vaccines used against tetanus are:

a. Anatoxin

b. Antitoxin

b. antitoxin

From where - if CEM is suspected in mares - will be collected samples for laboratory tests?

a. Clitoral fossa and distal urethra

b. Clitoral fossa and fossa glandis

c. Urethral sinuses and clitoral sinuses

d. Clitoral fossa and clitoral sinuses

d. Clitoral fossa and clitoral sinuses

Pulmonary, cardiac and mixed form are distinguished in:

a. EHV infections

b. EIA infections

c. african horse sickness

d. Strangles

c. African horse sickness

EIA virus is mainly shed through:

a. Saliva

b. Semen

c. Urine

d. Blood

d. blood

What is the nature of nasal discharge in the pulmonary form of AHS:

a. Muco-purulent and yellowish

b. Froth and serous

c. Serous and bloody

d. Froth and brownish

b. froth and serous

'Large amounts of frothy, serofibrinous fluid is often seen coming from the nostrils.' - MSD vet manual

Diagnosis of rhodococcus equi infection in foals is based on

A. clinical signs and thorax USG

B. clinical signs only

C. clinical signs and detection of R. equi in nasal swab

D. detection of R. equi in nasal swab and increase of hematological parameters

A. clinical signs and thorax USG

Frequent complications of pleuropneumonia is:

a. Laminitis

b. Osteomyelitis

c. Diarrhea

d. Purulent inflammation of eyeball

a. laminitis

Changes described as "comet tails" visible in USG during chest examination are typical for:

a. Pleuropneumonia

b. Rhodococcus

c. Glanders

d. Influenza

a. pleuropneumonia

If in the case of pleuropneumonia effusion is present, the therapeutic and diagnostic management include:

a. Application of diuretics and collection of nasal swabs

b. Antimicrobial therapy and collection of nasal swabs

c. Thoracocentesis and application of steroids

d. Thoracocentesis and fluid examination

d. Thoracocentesis and fluid examination

The vaccine against tetanus contains

A. inactivated toxin of clostridium tetani

B. M protein

C. c-reactive protein

D. inactivated strains of clostridium tetani

A. inactivated toxin of clostridium tetani

Strangles affect horses

A. naive at any age

B. immunocompromised

C. secondary to the viral infections

D. 3 weeks - 12 weeks old

A. naive at any age

Recommended "core vaccines" in horses in europe are

A. tetanus, rabies, eventually WNV plus rhinopneumonitis and influenza

B. tetanus, rabies, WNV, VEE

C. botulism, rhinopneumonitis, influenza

D. EVA, EIA, AHS

A. tetanus, rabies, eventually WNV plus rhinopneumonitis and influenza

In WNV cycle horses are

A. the only hosts

B. amplifying hosts

C. accidental hosts

D. the horses are not susceptible to this disease

C. accidental hosts

Typical signs of equine Influenza

a. Cough, fever, nasal discharge

b. Oedema, pink eye, weakness

c. Dark urine, anemia

d. All answers are correct

a. Cough, fever, nasal discharge

Head restraint in horses during transport results:

a. Lower respiratory tract infection and development of rhodococcosis

b. Lower respiratory tract infection and development of glanders

c. Lower respiratory tract infection and development of pleuropneumonia

d. Lower respiratory tract infection and development of bastard strangles

c. Lower respiratory tract infection and development of pleuropneumonia

What kind of symptoms correlate with tetanus in horses

a. A extended position head and neck, evaluation of the failhead and flaccid paralysis of anus

b. Diarrhea, increased tonus of masticatory muscles and neck stiffness

c. Prolapsed nictitans, muscle spasm, extensor rigidity, evaluation of the tailhead and paralysis of the anus

d. Prolapse of the tongue and nictitans, hyperthermia and muscle spasm

c. Prolapsed nictitans, muscle spasm, extensor rigidity, evaluation of the trailhead and paralysis of the anus

Burkholderia mallei infection occurs:

a. Worldwide with similar occurance

b. Only in North America

c. Only in Europe

d. Mostly in Middle East

d. Mostly in Middle East

Which of the statements is true for vaccination of horses against Equine Infectious Anemia

a. Effective vaccines are vailable in some European countries amd USA

b. Vaccines are not used due to serious side effects

c. Many commercial vaccines are available worldwide

d. Effective vaccines are not available

d. Effective vaccines are not available

Gross lesions which may be observed in fetuses aborted due to EHV-1 infection

a. Multiple petechiae, jaundice, multiple hepatic necrosis, yellow fluid in the body cavities

b. Tissues autolysis, abscesses in liver

c. Placentitis, necrotic lesions and mucous exudate on fetus

d. All answers are correct

a. Multiple petechiae, jaundice, multiple hepatic necrosis, yellow fluid in the body cavities

Typical changes in ap in aborted fetuses on the background of ehv-1:

-petechiae, yellowing (icterus), fluid, necrotic lesions

Placenta after leptospirosis miscarriage

a. It is not changed at any time during pregnancy

b. It's just bloodshot

c. It is covered with bruising and bloodshot, and is chronically infected it is covered with white bloom

d. Normal size, sometimes swollen and bloodshot, and aw the course of chronic infection has a brown color, covered with mucus

d. Normal size, sometimes swollen and bloodshot, and aw the course of chronic infection has a brown color, covered with mucus

To endure the potentially best therapeutic outcomes in the treatment of tetanus the combination of following drugs should be applied:

a. Antimicrobials like penicillin and serum

b. Drugs that allows sedation and myorelaxation

c. Antimicrobials like penicillin, serum and drugs that allows sedation and myorelaxation

d. Serum and drugs that allows sedation and myorelaxation

c. Antimicrobials like penicillin, serum and drugs that allows sedation and myorelaxation

The main source of infection with Salmonella in horses is/are:

a. Consumption of contaminated water or feed

b. Inhalation of dust contaminated via bacteria

c. Transmission via mosquitos and ticks

d. Trans-placental transmission

a. Consumption of contaminated water or feed

In the case of rabies, the main place/places where wounds have been found is/are:

a. Wounds on nostrils, lips and legs

b. Wounds on the back and rump

c. Wounds on chest and stomach

d. Wounds on the tail

a. Wounds on nostrils, lips and legs

Vaccines against Herpesvirus infection in horses contain:

a. RAC-H antigens

b. EHV-1 & EHV-4 antigens

c. attenuated EHV-1, EHV-2, & EHV-4 strains

d. Inactivated EHV-1, EHV-3 & EHV-4 strains

b. EHV-1 & EHV-4 antigens

The vaccine against tetanus contains

a. inactivated toxin of clostridium tetani

b. M protein

c. c-reactive protein

d. inactivated strains of clostridium tetani

a. inactivated toxin of clostridium tetani

mortality in AHS

A. is less than 10% due to worldwide vaccination programs B. varies between 30-60% in horses

C. is the biggest in african zebras

D. is over 50%, even up to 95% in horses

D. is over 50%, even up to 95% in horses

EIAV inhabits which cells

Macrophages (and lymphocytes)

the mainstays of rhodococcus treatment is

A. antibiotic therapy with rifampicin and macrolides

B. antibiotics therapy according to antibiogram

C. only supportive care

D. antiviral drugs

A. antibiotic therapy with rifampicin and macrolides

Which drug usually treat rhodococcosis?

a. Combination of penicillins

b. Combination of macrolides

c. Combination of nitrofurans

d. Combination of aminoglycosides

b. Combination of macrolides

At which stage of the pregnancy abortion due to equine herpes virus type 1 occurs most often:

a. late pregnancy, usually 3rd trimester

b. 3-10 months

c. for the whole pregnancy

d. any time, up to four weeks after pregnant mares infection

d. any time, up to four weeks after pregnant mares infection

Which of the abortive diseases may be prevented by vaccination of mares?

a. EHV only

b. PHF only

c. EHV, arteritis, PHF

d. Arteritis only

c. EHV, arteritis, PHF

Which of the abortive diseases may be prevented by vaccination of mares?

a. EHV 2

b. EHV 5

c. EHV 1

d. EHV 4

c. EHV 1

Most common CEM clinical manifestation in mares and stallions are:

a. Vaginal discharge in mares and the absence of clinical symptoms in stallions

b. The absence of clinical symptoms in mares and muco-purulent discharge from foreskin (praeputium)

c. Respiratory symptoms and discharges from vagina and foreskin (praeputium) in mares and stallions

d. Abortions in mares and respiratory symptoms in stallions

a. Vaginal discharge in mares and the absence of clinical symptoms in stallions

VEE, WEE, EEE belong to

A. flaviviridae

B. togaviridae

C. rhadoviridae

D. arteriviridae

B. togaviridae

The most reasonable diagnostic test for EIA is

a. virus isolation,

b. AGID or ELISA

c. Western-blot (Coggins test)

d. PCR

b. AGID or ELISA

The method recommended by the OIE for testing horses for glanders prior to the transport is:

a. Bacteriology

b. PCR

c. Complement fixation test

d. ELISA

c. Complement fixation test (most reliable in horse OIE)

Tetanolysin:

a. has an unknown function

b. is disseminated via neurons,

c. leads to unopposed muscle contraction,

d. is produced by Clostridium botulinum

a. has an unknown function

In the EU obligatory testing for Burkholderia mallei involves:

a. Malleinisation

b. Real-Time PCR only

c. Culture of the bacteria

d. Serological examination by CFT only

d. Serological examination by CFT only

How many types of shedding virus with semen are there in the remaining stallions infected with arteritis

a. 3 types - short term, medium term and long term

b. 4 types - multi-day, short-term, medium-term andlong term

c. 1 type - all stallions sow the virus with the seed for the rest of their lives

d. 2 types -short-term and long-term

a. 3 types - short term, medium term and long term

By what means can mares become infected with arteritis virus?

a. Only by droplets from another infected mare

b. Only by covering, both naturally and by artificial means insemination

c. Only by natural mating with the seed of an infected stallion

d. By natural covering, artificial insemination and droplets, from other infected mares

d. By natural covering, artificial insemination and droplets, from other infected mares

S. neurona:

a. Causes Borna Disease

b. Causes EPM

c. is transmitted by rats

d. causes a non-progressive disease

b. Causes EPM

Routes of transmission of Equine Viral Arteritis

a. mosquitos

b. airborne and mating

c. blood products

d. all answers are correct

b. airborne and mating

At which stage of the pregnancy abortion due to Equine Viral Arteritis may occur?

a. third trimester

b. early pregnancy, usually 1st trimester

c. for the whole pregnancy

d. any time, up to four weeks after pregnant mare's infection

d. any time, up to four weeks after pregnant mare's infection

Causative agent of Contagious Equine Metritis (CEM)

a. Taylorella asinigenitalis

b. Taylorella equigenitalis

c. Burkholderia mallei

d. Trypanosoma equiperdum

b. Taylorella equigenitalis

Which statement is true for vaccination of horses against African Horse Sickness?

a. effective inactivated vaccine is available in some countries

b. vaccines are not used due to serious side effects

c. many commercial vaccines are available worldwide

d. effective vaccines are not available

c. many commercial vaccines are available worldwide

(live attenuated, active vaccine)

hmm idk A is on chatgbt

Vaccination against tetanus in foals coming from non-vaccinated (during pregnancy) mares may be started at:

a. As early as 3 months of age

b. As early as 1 month of age

c. As early as 6 months of age

d. As early as 8-9 months of age

a. As early as 3 months of age

AHS:

a. s contagious but not infectious,

b. Is infectious but not contagious,

c. Is transmitted by ticks only,

d. Is an endemic disease in USA.

b. Is infectious but not contagious,

AHS is

a. contagious disease of horses

b. disease occurrence only in europa

c. Disease of all species

d. Non-contagious disease of horses

d. Non-contagious disease of horses

. Rhodococcus equi infection in foals is caused by:

a. Rhodococcus equi - VapA

b. Rhodococcus equi - VapB

c. Rhodococcus equi - VapC

d. Rhodococcus equi - „plazmidless"

a. Rhodococcus equi - VapA

Equine viral respiratory tract infectious diseases known as "equine respiratory diagnostic panel" include:

a. EIV, EVA, EHV-1, EHV-4

b. WNV. EIV, EVA, EHV-1.

c. EIA, EIV. EVA. EHV-1

d. EIA, WNE, WEE, EHV-4

a. EIV, EVA, EHV-1, EHV-4

Susceptible to African Horse Sickness are:

a. equidae and humans

b. equidae and dogs

c. only horses

d. equidae and ruminants

b. equidae and dogs

Susceptible to Equine Viral Arteritis are:

a. Only Equidae

b. Equidae and dogs

c. Equidae and felids

d. Equidae and humans

a. Only Equidae

Intermittent bleeding from one nostril and the swelling of the punch area suggest targeting laboratory testing

a. On rhodococciosis

b. Viral infection

c. Fungal infection

d. Strangles

c. fungal infection

Susceptible to infection of Burkholderia mallei are:

a. Equidae and lions

b. Equidae and humans

c. Equidae and laboratory animals

d. All answers are correct

d. all answers are correct

Diarrhea caused by rotavirus infection occurs:

a. In foals in first weeks of life

b. In all horses regardless of their ages

c. In foals at weaning

d. In foals during mare's estrus

a. In foals in first weeks of life

Diarrhea caused by Clostridium difficile infection occurs mainly: ● In foals during the first week of life

● In all horses regardless of their ages

● In foals at weaning

● In horses

● In all horses regardless of their ages

Vaccination should be performed in the prevention of abortions due to EHV-1 and EHV-4 infection:

a. Only foal mares of high breeding value

b. Mare element

c. All horses in the stud

d. Mares who miscarried in previous seasons

c. all horses in the stud

A first-line treatment for horses with ricketta disease is/are

a. Tetracyclines (oxytetracyclines)

b. Macrolides

c. Penicillin

d. Amino-glycosides

a. Tetracyclines (oxytetracyclines)

The mainstays of African Horse Sickness control is

a. Vaccination

b. Movement restrictions

c. Reduction of exposure to biting insects

d. All the aforementioned

d. all the aforementioned

Which symptoms are typical for pleuropneumonia in horses?

a. Noisy, deep coughing and the absence of problems with gait

b. Subcutaneous edemas

c. Silent coughing and facial paralysis

d. Silent coughing, reluctance to move, stiff gait

d. Silent coughing, reluctance to move, stiff gait

Neurological disorders in ElA derive from:

a. Vasculitis in CNS

b. Hypoglycemia

c. Brain infection

d. Ag-Ab complexes in spinal cord

a. Vasculitis in CNS

Causative agent of strangles is:

a. Streptococcus equi subsp. equi

b. Streptococcus equi subsp. zooepidemicus

c. Streptococcus equisimilis

d. Streptococcus pyogenes

a. Streptococcus equi subsp. equi

Rhodococcosis occurs mostly at the age of:

a. 1-3 weeks

b. 3 weeks -3 years

c. 3 weeks - 12 weeks

d. Any age

c. 3 weeks - 12 weeks

Equine infectious diseases which are called "equine encephalitis":

a. West Nile Fever, Japanese Encephalitis, Potomac Fever

b. Western equine encephalitis, Eastern equine encephalitis, Venezuelan equine encephalitis

c. Born disease, tick-borne encephalitis, West Nile Fever

d. All answers are correct

b. Western equine encephalitis, Eastern equine encephalitis, Venezuelan equine encephalitis

Japanese Encephalitis may affect:

a. Only horses

b. Horses, dogs, cats and humans

c. Horses, donkeys, pigs and humans

d. Horses and donkeys

c. Horses, donkeys, pigs and humans

Which of the mentioned occur in clostridial infections most frequently?

a. Tetanus and botulism

b. Diarrhea and colic

c. Neurological symptoms

d. Skin lesions

b. diarrhea and colic

Clinical signs of tetanus:

a. Rigidity of muscles, profuse sweating, dysphagia

b. Tachycardia and hyperthermia

c. Recumbency

d. All answers are correct

d. all answers are correct

Most common CEM clinical manifestation in mares are:

a. Profuse, serous vaginal discharge and the absence of estrus

b. Abortion in mares and respiratory symptoms in stallions

c. Profuse, bloody vaginal discharge and the early return to estrus

d. Profuse, mucopurulent vaginal discharge and early return to estrus

d. Profuse, mucopurulent vaginal discharge and early return to estrus

What is farcy (Tyczak):

a. Cutaneous form of pythiasis

b. Cutaneous mycetoma

c. Cutaneous form of phaeohyphomycosis

d. Glanders cutaneous form

d. Glanders cutaneous form

Pale, icteric mucosal membranes with petechiae and red colored urine can be observed in the course of:

a. Piroplasmosis and ehrlihiosis

b. Leptospirosis and piroplasmosis

c. Equine infectious anemia

d. All the aforementioned

d. all the aforementioned

Can the Polish horse racing club impose an obligation to vaccinate horses on racing tracks?

- yes

- no

- yes

Has African horse sickness ever been found outside of Africa?

a.yes

b. no

a. yes

What diagnostic samples should be collected from fetuses aborted due to viral infection (at least 5)

- send fetus to the lab

- placenta to lab

- hematology

-serology

- virus isolation

- PCR

- organs: lung, liver and spleen

Which most typical post mortem changes can be observed in equine leptospirosis:

a. Splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, renal interstitial edema

b. Hepatomegaly, vessel thrombocytosis, myonecrosis

c. Lymphadenopathy, glomerulonephritis, splenomegaly

d. Renal interstitial edema, hemorrhages, glomerulonephritis

a. Splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, renal interstitial edema

D??

What are the routes of transmission of Equine infectious anemia

- iatrogenic transmission

- mare to foal

- venereal

- aerosol transmission

- oral and wounded skin

- vectors

Which of the vector-borne diseases in horses may cause abortions?

a. Anaplasmosis

b. Potomac Horse Fever

c. Teilorella equigenitalis infection

d. Arteritis

D - arteritis ??

About 80% of horses with Potomac Horse Fever show:

a. Diarrhea

b. Limb oedema

c. Neurological disorders

d. Nasal and ocular discharge

a. diarrhea

.Where is the gate of infection most often located in the case of equine rabies?

-area of front limbs and lips

At which stage of the pregnancy abortion due to EIA may occur?

a. Third trimester.

b. Early pregnancy usually first trimester

c. For whole pregnancy

d. Any time, up to 4 weeks after pregnant mares infection

d. Any time, up to 4 weeks after pregnant mares infection

Diseases subject to registration in Poland are:

a. arteritis, herd blight,

b. herd blight, rhodococcosis,

c. equine viral encephalomyelitis, scrapes,

d. infectious uterine inflammation in mares and spleen.

c. equine viral encephalomyelitis, scrapies,

what diseases are OIE listed

- AHS, CEM, dourine, encephalomyelitis, EIA, influenza, piroplasmosis, rhinopneumonitis, EVA, glanders, VEE

what diseases are reported in poland

- AHS

- vesicular stomatitis

- rabies

- anthrax

Vaccination efficacy against equine type 1 and type 4 herpes viruses:

a. is limited by the antigenic variability of EHV (antigenic shift and jump)

b. it is limited by the weak immunogenicity of EHV

c. it is high and protects against all forms of the disease

d. it is limited due to the presence of different strains of EHV

d. it is limited due to the presence of different strains of EHV

Equine infectious anemia virus is:

a. Lentivirus,

b. Metavirus,

c. Flavivirus,

d. Orthomyxovirus.

a. Lentivirus

Horse herd contagion is caused by: a. Trypanosoma cruzi,

b. Trypanosoma equiperdum,

c. Trypanosoma equi,

d. Sarcocystis of the neuron.

b. Trypanosoma equiperdum,

Mass miscarriages ('abortion storms') occur with infection:

a. EHV-1, EVA

b. EHV-3, EHV-4

c. EHV-1 i EHV-3,

d. EHV-5

a. EHV-1, EVA