[MANOR] Dispensing & ADR - Practice Questions

B) pharmacologically inactive

1. Drugs bound to plasma proteins are considered:
   a) pharmacologically active
   b) pharmacologically inactive
   c) free drugs
   d) bioavailable drugs

D) all of the above

2. Alkaline salts like potassium penicillin when placed in an acidic solution can result in:
   a) conversion into free acid
   b) precipitation of penicillin
   c) insolubility
   d) all of the above

A) fast acetylators

3. In metabolizing a standard dose of INH, Filipinos are considered:
   a) fast acetylators
   b) slow acetylators
   c) neither slow nor fast
   d) same as the Caucasians

B) easier to correct than to prevent

4. The following are true regarding incompatibilities, except:
   a) problems arising during compounding, dispensing and drug administration
   b) easier to correct than to prevent
   c) may be intentional or unintentional
   d) must be recognized by pharmacists

A) employ combination therapy

5. The following are guidelines for reducing drug interactions, except:
   a) employ combination therapy
   b) identify patient risk factors
   c) educate the patient
   d) know properties of drugs

B) profuse bleeding

6. Enzyme inhibition of coumarins can lead to:
   a) hypoglycemia
   b) profuse bleeding
   c) blood clotting
   d) convulsion

B) Type B ADR

7. Anaphylaxis is a:
   a) Type A ADR
   b) Type B ADR
   c) Type E ADR
   d) Type F ADR

B) chemical incompatibility

8. Oxidizing agents are incompatible with reducing agents. This is a:
   a) physical incompatibility
   b) chemical incompatibility
   c) therapeutic incompatibility
   d) both A & B

A) adverse drug reaction

9. Any drug reaction which does not necessarily have a causal relationship with the treatment is called an:
   a) adverse drug reaction
   b) therapeutic incompatibility
   c) adverse drug event
   d) none of the above

D) Type D ADR

10. Teratogenicity is a/an:
    a) Type A ADR
    b) Type B ADR
    c) Type C ADR
    d) Type D ADR

B) converts polar to nonpolar drugs

11. The following are true about biotransformation except:
    a) occurs after drug distribution
    b) converts polar to nonpolar drugs
    c) converts lipophilic to hydrophilic drugs
    d) can influence drug elimination rate

A) immiscibility

12. The following are manifestations of chemical incompatibilities except:
    a) immiscibility
    b) photolysis
    c) gel formation
    d) evolution of gas

B) salting-out

13. The precipitation of an organic substance from a saturated solution when highly soluble salts are added is known as:
    a) polymorphism
    b) salting-out
    c) racemization
    d) eutexia

D) cementation

14. Acacia in the presence of Bismuth salts can form a "cake" at the bottom of the container. This manifestation is known as:
    a) gelatinization
    b) hydrolysis
    c) emulsification
    d) cementation

D) addison's disease

15. Sudden withdrawal of steroids can result in:
    a) anemia
    b) hypertension
    c) Parkinson's disease
    d) addison's disease

C) 1 + 1 = 3

16. A mathematical model for a potentiating drug effect:
    a) 1 + 1 = 2
    b) 1 + 1 = 3
    c) 0 + 1 = 2
    d) 1 + 1 = 0

C) both A & B

17. A remedy for tablet granulations containing vitamin C:
    a) prepare by dry granulation
    b) use precoated ascorbic acid granules
    c) both A & B
    d) none of the above

D) none of the above

18. Chloramphenicol palmitate exists in 3 different polymorphs, each differ in the ff. properties, except:
    a) solubility
    b) free energy
    c) melting point
    d) none of the above

D) vegetables potentiate anticoagulants

19. The following are the physiologic effects of food on drug reaction, except:
    a) reducing gastric emptying rate
    b) milk reduces absorption of tetracycline
    c) tea increases absorption of paracetamol
    d) vegetables potentiate anticoagulants

D) none of the above

20. Important characteristics of idiosyncratic drug reaction, except:
    a) congenital hypersensitivities
    b) genetic or hereditary in origin
    c) metabolic abnormality
    d) none of the above

D) all of the above

21. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAO inhibitors) and foods rich in tyramine like cheese will lead to:
    a) accumulation of pressor amines
    b) increase in blood pressure
    c) non-metabolism of tyramine
    d) all of the above

C) both a & b

22. The following condition/s will amplify the activity of cardiac glycosides:
    a) hypercalcemia
    b) hypokalemia
    c) both a & b
    d) none of the above

A) pharmacokinetic interactions

23. Drug-drug interactions that occur when one drug alters the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of the other drug.
    a) pharmacokinetic interactions
    b) pharmacologic interactions
    c) pharmacodynamic interaction
    d) all of the above

D) both A & B

24. Displacement of a plasma-protein bound drug such as in Warfarin-phenylbutazone interaction, results in:
    a) hemorrhage
    b) increase concentration of warfarin
    c) decreased activity of warfarin
    d) both A & B

D) all of the above

25. Tobacco and cigarettes are potent enzyme inducers. As a consequence,
    a) one needs to increase dose of drug
    b) this leads to drug tolerance
    c) this is an ADR
    d) all of the above

B) Steven's Johnson syndrome

26. A drug-induced hypersensitivity reaction caused by sulfonamides:
    a) Parkinson's disease
    b) Steven's Johnson syndrome
    c) hypertension
    d) contact dermatitis

D) none of the above

27. The following are true regarding excretion of acidic drugs except:
    a) exist in the ionized state in alkaline urine
    b) exist in the non-ionized form in acidic urine
    c) acidic urine increases drug action
    d) none of the above

A) enzyme inducers

28. Phenobarbital and griseofulvin are __________ of coumarins.
    a) enzyme inducers
    b) enzyme inhibitors
    c) antagonists
    d) agonists

B) patient compliance

29. Type F ADRs can occur as a result of the following except:
    a) antimicrobial drug resistance
    b) patient compliance
    c) counterfeit drugs
    d) drug instability

C) both A & B

30. Chloramphenicol can lead to this untoward drug reaction:
    a) agranulocytosis
    b) Gray syndrome
    c) both A & B
    d) none of the above

A) Herxheimer reaction

31. A fever response to antibiotic therapy caused by the sudden release of endotoxins from various killed microorganisms is called:
    a) Herxheimer reaction
    b) Lyell's syndrome
    c) skin reaction
    d) anaphylactic reaction

A) eutectic combination

32. Camphor, menthol, acetophenetidine, phenol will form:
    a) eutectic combination
    b) liquefaction
    c) explosive combination
    d) both A & B

A) therapeutic incompatibility

33. The manifestation in no. 32 is a result of a:
    a) therapeutic incompatibility
    b) chemical incompatibility
    c) physical incompatibility
    d) adverse drug reaction

B) albumin

34. The most important protein to which drugs can bind in the plasma:
    a) lipoprotein
    b) albumin
    c) glycoprotein
    d) none of the above

C) ototoxicity

35. Side effects of streptomycin:
    a) headache
    b) dryness of the mouth
    c) ototoxicity
    d) none of the above

A) non-ionized form is more lipid-soluble & absorbable

36. The following is/are true regarding absorption of salicylic acid:
    a) non-ionized form is more lipid-soluble & absorbable
    b) ionized form is more lipid-soluble & absorbable
    c) polar form is more readily absorbed
    d) absorption is increased when taken with an antacid

A) amber bottle

37. UV light-sensitive substances are best protected using:
    a) amber bottle
    b) plastic container
    c) flint glass
    d) carton box

D) all of the above

38. Oxidation is:
    a) loss of electrons
    b) dehydrogenation
    c) cause of drug instability
    d) all of the above

B) distribution

39. The transport of a substance from one part of the body to another by means of blood:
    a) absorption
    b) distribution
    c) metabolism
    d) excretion

D) incorporate cotton in packaging

40. The following are possible remedies for liquefaction of solid substances except:
    a) triturate separately and mix by tumbling
    b) add adsorbents to liquid combination
    c) dispense powders separately
    d) incorporate cotton in packaging

D) both A & C

41. The following type/s of incompatibility may be dispensed:
    a) intentional incompatibility
    b) unintentional incompatibility
    c) delayed chemical incomp., but within shelf-life of product
    d) both A & C

B) racemization

42. The conversion of an optically active form to an optically inactive form is called:
    a) polymorphism
    b) racemization
    c) polymerization
    d) enantiomorphism

D) A or B

43. Precipitation can be:
    a) physical incompatibility
    b) chemical incompatibility
    c) adverse drug reaction
    d) A or B

C) glycols, sorbitol, glycerol

44. Examples of co-solvents:
    a) water, butanol
    b) alcohol, mineral oil
    c) glycols, sorbitol, glycerol
    d) acetone, water, alcohol

C) unreliable contraception

45. Enzyme induction of Phenobarbital with oral contraceptives can lead to:
    a) decreased Phenobarbital action
    b) increased oral contraceptives action
    c) unreliable contraception
    d) none of the above

A) first pass effect

46. Characterizes the first exposure of the fraction of the drug metabolized in the liver:
    a) first pass effect
    b) drug-receptor interaction
    c) biotransformation
    d) pharmacokinetics

B) diagnosis

47. These are functions of a pharmacist except:
    a) drug information
    b) diagnosis
    c) counseling on medications
    d) monitor drug response

A) drug dependence

48. A physiological or a psychological state resulting from drug administration:
    a) drug dependence
    b) drug habituation
    c) drug addiction
    d) drug tolerance

B) extension effect

49. An ADR experienced as a consequence of receiving an inappropriately high dose of the drug due to patient characteristics:
    a) idiosyncracy
    b) extension effect
    c) side effect
    d) Type B

D) all of the above

50. The ff. is/are characteristic/s of side effects:
    a) dose-dependent
    b) predictable
    c) associated pharmacological effect
    d) all of the above

C) both A & B

51. Oral antihistamines exhibit the following side effect:
    a) drowsiness
    b) sleepiness
    c) both A & B
    d) anemia

B) veterinarian

52. Prescriber of a prescription:
    a) pharmacist
    b) veterinarian
    c) nurse
    d) medical technologist

D) preparation of medicine

53. Compounding is concerned with:
    a) supply of a medicine
    b) preparation & distribution of drugs
    c) order for medicine
    d) preparation of medicine

C) dispensing

54. The supply of medicine to an individual patient in accordance to the prescription given by the physician:
    a) compounding
    b) formulation
    c) dispensing
    d) none of the above

C) essential information is missing

55. A prescription should be refused when:
    a) patient is terribly sick
    b) there is no available delivery service
    c) essential information is missing
    d) it is not signed by the pharmacist

A) M. ft. sol.

56. An example of a subscription:
    a) M. ft. sol.
    b) 1 tab q 6 hrs
    c) shake well before using
    d) 250 mg capsule

B) filed for future reference

57. A filled prescription for ethical drugs must be:
    a) returned to the patient
    b) filed for future reference
    c) discarded after recording
    d) forwarded to BFAD

D) both B & C

58. Which of these drug products require a physician's prescription?
    a) Aspirin 325 mg tab
    b) Paracetamol 500 mg Tab
    c) Nubain 10 mg/vial
    d) both B & C

C) all are non-prescription drugs

59. Which of the ff. correctly applies to this group of drug products? Paracetamol 325 mg Tab, Cortal 325 mg Tab, Alvedon 325 mg Tab
    a) all are generically equivalent
    b) all are in brand names
    c) all are non-prescription drugs
    d) all are prescription drugs

C) Latin

60. Because it is the language of medical science throughout the world, this language is still used in Rx writing:
    a) English
    b) German
    c) Latin
    d) Spanish

B) in the privacy of the pharmacy

61. The prescription should be read and checked:
    a) in front of the patient/customer
    b) in the privacy of the pharmacy
    c) in the counter of the botica
    d) none of the above

B) wide-mouthed bottles

62. For dispensing thick viscous liquids, the container should be:
    a) standard prescription
    b) wide-mouthed bottles
    c) collapsible tubes
    d) dropper bottles

A) erroneous prescription

63. When the generic name is preceded by the brand name, the prescription is:
    a) erroneous prescription
    b) violative prescription
    c) impossible prescription
    d) none of the above

C) dispensing the customer's choice from generally equivalent drugs

64. Generic dispensing means:
    a) dispensing drugs with generic names only
    b) dispensing with correct prescription
    c) dispensing the customer's choice from generally equivalent drugs
    d) dispensing drugs in proper containers

D) name of physician

65. When dispensing a compounded prescription, these information must be written on the label except:
    a) indications
    b) name and strength of actives
    c) name of manufacturer
    d) name of physician

B) subscription

66. In a prescription, the dispensing directions to the pharmacist is the:
    a) superscription
    b) subscription
    c) inscription
    d) signa

B) 80 mL

67. How many mL will you dispense for a prescription calling for a 100 g of a liquid substance with a sp.gr. of 1.25?
    a) 75 mL
    b) 80 mL
    c) 85 mL
    d) 90 mL

B) rational drug therapy

68. Providing the correct medicines at the right time at the right dose and using the right route of administration to the right patient is:
    a) primary care
    b) rational drug therapy
    c) osteopathy
    d) homeopathy

B) Indicated for Fe poisoning

69. The following are true about dimercaprol except:
    a) British Anti-Lewisite
    b) Indicated for Fe poisoning
    c) indicated for as poisoning
    d) chemical antagonist

A) complete formation

70. Identify the odd-man-out:
    a) complete formation
    b) liquefaction of solid ingredients
    c) insolubility
    d) polymorphism

A) anabolic steroids

71. Group of drugs commonly abused by athletes:
    a) anabolic steroids
    b) dexamethasone
    c) antibiotics
    d) vitamins

A) epinephrine injection

72. Immediate remedy for anaphylaxis:
    a) epinephrine injection
    b) aspirin
    c) antihistamine
    d) antibiotic

B) object drug

73. A drug whose action is affected in a drug interaction:
    a) precipitant
    b) object drug
    c) interactant
    d) none of the above

A) acid pH

74. The following are remedies for oxidation except:
    a) acid pH
    b) change dosage form
    c) addition of antioxidant
    d) protection from light

B) gelatinization

75. A suspension with the f. ingredients (FeCl3, Fe(OH)3, acacia, FD&C #5 (orange color) and methyl paraben will reveal this manifestation:
    a) polymerization
    b) gelatinization
    c) cementation
    d) precipitation

B) formulation

76. The following are patient-related predisposing factors to ADRs except:
    a) age
    b) formulation
    c) genetic disposition
    d) history of allergy

D) competition for tubular secretion

77. Probenecid and penicillin exhibits this type of interaction:
    a) enzyme induction
    b) enzyme inhibition
    c) alteration in gastric emptying
    d) competition for tubular secretion

C) efflorescent substances

78. Citric acid, atropine sulfate and ferrous sulfate are classified as:
    a) eutectic mixtures
    b) deliquescent substs.
    c) efflorescent substances
    d) polymorphs

B) 1 + 1 = 8

79. A mathematical model for synergism:
    a) 1 + 1 = 2
    b) 1 + 1 = 8
    c) 0 + 1 = 2
    d) 1 + 1 = 0

A) sorption

80. Term for migration of the drug into the container:
    a) sorption
    b) leaching
    c) permeation
    d) vaporization

D) racemization

81. The conversion of an optically active drug with one chiral center into an optically inactive isomer:
    a) polymorphism
    b) enantiomerism
    c) epimerization
    d) racemization

B) imposing a particular brand or product on the buyer

82. One of the violations committed by dispensing pharmacist is:
    a) informing the patient of the current list of available drugs
    b) imposing a particular brand or product on the buyer
    c) recording of prescriptions filled
    d) dispensing of the product according to the prescription

D) the generic name is not legible and the brand is written legibly

83. An impossible prescription is described by the following except:
    a) only the generic name is written but not legible
    b) both generic & brand names are not legible
    c) the generic name does not correspond to the brand name
    d) the generic name is not legible and the brand is written legibly

B) erroneous prescription

84. The incorrect prescription that can be filled is the:
    a) impossible prescription
    b) erroneous prescription
    c) violative prescription
    d) none of the above

D) both A & B

85. The date after which the product is not intended to be used:
    a) beyond-use date
    b) expiry date
    c) stop date
    d) both A & B

A) rewarding for the pharmacist

86. The following are importance of recognizing potential incompatibilities, except:
    a) rewarding for the pharmacist
    b) safety of the patient
    c) savings in money, time effort
    d) quality medicines dispensed

D) any of the above

87. Poor patient compliance with prescription instruction is usually due to the ff. except:
    a) patient understood pharmacists instructions poorly
    b) pharmacist has poor communication skills
    c) inadequate time of pharmacist for patient counseling
    d) any of the above

A) surfactants

88. HLB is a system used to distinguish between:
    a) surfactants
    b) glidants
    c) suspending agents
    d) excipients
    e) disintegrators

A) to identify the prescription for future reference

89. The purpose of the prescription number is:
    a) to identify the prescription for future reference
    b) as a substitute for the name of the drug
    c) to guide the pharmacist in costing
    d) to provide professional fee to the medicine

D) all of the above

90. In pricing the prescription, the pharmacist must consider:
    a) cost of ingredients
    b) professional fee
    c) percentage mark-up
    d) all of the above

C) consult the prescriber

91. If there is doubt in legibility of the prescription, the pharmacist should:
    a) decide based on patient's ailment
    b) make an educated guess
    c) consult the prescriber
    d) consult MIMS

A) signa

92. For the guidance of the patient, the prescription needs:
    a) signa
    b) subscription
    c) superscription
    d) inscription

B) to establish identity

93. Importance of a label:
    a) for sake of art
    b) to establish identity
    c) to improve elegance
    d) to give prominence

A) do not repeat

94. An auxiliary label except:
    a) do not repeat
    b) for external use
    c) shake well before using
    d) ophthalmic use

B) dosage regimen

95. Refers to the schedule of dosing (e.g., QID, 10 days)
    a) divided doses
    b) dosage regimen
    c) single dose
    d) total dose

D) a and b

96. When dispensing prepared dosage forms, the pharmacist may use which of the ff dose equivalents?
    a) exact equivalent
    b) exact dose
    c) approximate dose
    d) a and b

B) usual dosage range

97. Indicates the quantitative range or amounts of drug that maybe prescribed within the guidelines of usual medical practice.
    a) divided dose
    b) usual dosage range
    c) loading dose
    d) total dose

A) errors in pricing

98. Which of the following does not cause a therapeutic incompatibility?
    a) errors in pricing
    b) dosage form errors
    c) loading dose
    d) errors of storage and supply

B) sedation

99. An associated pharmacological effect of chlorphenamine maleate:
    a) hypotension
    b) sedation
    c) headache
    d) nausea

C) Type C ADR

100. Ecstacy exhibits this type of ADR:
     a) Type A
     b) Type B
     c) Type C
     d) Type D