Exam 1

Consider the cardiac cycle. The ___ phase occurs immediately after the ___ phase. A. Isovolumetric contract; isovolumetric relaxation B. Isovolumetric relaxation; ventricular ejection C. Ventricular ejection; isovolumetric relaxation D. Ventricular ejection; ventricular filling

Isovolumetric relaxation; ventricular ejection

Which of these layers of blood vessel tissue secretes a layer of prostacyclin? A. Tunica intima B. Myocardium C. Tunica media D. Tunica externa E. Adventitia

Tunica intima

Which of the following is not a stimulus for an increase in erythrocyte production? A. Liver tissue hypoxia B. Kidney tissue hypoxia C. Decreased erythropoietin D. Hypoxemia

Decreased erythropoietin

In damaged blood vessels, platelets activate due to the presence of exposed ____. A. Nitric oxide B. Collagen C. Thrombin D. Fibrin E. Prostacyclin

Collagen

Which of the following could decrease the risk of thrombosis? A. Aplastic anemia B. Destructive mutation to the plasminogen gene C. Destructive mutation to the anti-thrombin gene D. Starvation malnutrition E. Elevated plasmin levels

Elevated plasmin levels

Which of the following is normally found in abundance dissolved in the blood plasma? A. Albumin B. Hemoglobin C. Fibrin D. Hemopoietic stem cells E. Adipose

Albumin

___ are the most like medium veins of the cardiovascular system, in that they contain ___ to prevent reversal of flow under low pressures. A. Lymphatic vessels; valve-like flaps B. Lymphatic capillaries; valve-like flaps C. Lymphatic trunks; valves D. Lymphatic vessels; valves

Lymphatic vessels; valves

Why is erythrocyte degradation a controlled process occurring in specific organs rather than spontaneously within the bloodstream? A. Bloodstream hemolysis releases pathogenic toxins found within all erythrocytes B. Only the spleen expresses the enzymes necessary to degrade hemoglobin C. Lipids from a ruptured plasma membrane may produce clots of plaques on vessel walls D. Excessive plasma hemolysis can lead to hemoglobin nephrotoxicity

Excessive plasma hemolysis can lead to hemoglobin nephrotoxicity

Which of these is an antibody-mediated aspect of immune system function? A. T-cell activation B. Neutralization of interferons C. Antigen presentation D. Agglutination of antigens

Agglutination of antigens

Which of the following directly converts fibrinogen into fibrin? A. Plasmin B. Hageman factor C. Thrombin D. Antithrombin E. Thromboplastin

Thrombin

What type of shock can be produced by head trauma? A. Anaphylactic B. Cardiogenic C. Neurogenic D. Hypovolemic

Neurogenic

What is the correct sequence of events in the cellular immune response? A. Clonal selection, co-stimulation, antigen recognition, antigen presentation, attack B. Antigen presentation, antigen recognition, co-stimulation, clonal selection, attack C. Antigen presentation, antigen recognition, co-stimulation, attack, clonal selection D. Co-stimulation, antigen recognition, antigen presentation, attack, clonal selection E. Co-stimulation, antigen presentation, antigen recognition, clonal selection, attack

Antigen presentation, antigen recognition, co-stimulation, clonal selection, attack

Depolarization in the action potential (post-threshold) of SA nodal cells results from the action of ____. A. Slow K+ efflux B. Slow Ca2+ influx C. Slow Na+ influx D. Fast Na+/Ca2+ co-influx

Fast Na+/Ca2+ co-influx

Veins are sometimes called the ___ vessels because they tend to have a wide lumen and most of a person's blood volume flows at a slower pace through the circuit. A. Cavernous B. Elastic C. Return D. Capacitance E. Resistance F. Luminous

Capacitance

Which one of these decreases when cardiac output returns to normal after an elevated state? A. Venous return B. Cerebral blood flow C. Intestinal blood flow D. Parasympathetic tone

Venous return

On an ECG trace, which one of these represents a depolarization event in the heart in a pair of chambers? A. S-T segment B. T wave C. P-Q segment D. P-R interval E. Interbeat interval F. QRS complex

QRS complex

Which of these depolarizes muscles that contract to eject blood from the ventricles? A. Purkinje fibers B. AV nodes C. Ectopic nodes D. Internodal pathways

Purkinje fibers

Baroreceptors of the carotids & aorta would likely change autonomic tone based on: A. Carbon dioxide accumulation B. Acidosis C. Albumin levels D. Hypotension

Hypotension

Which of the following would always increase blood flow in a given vessel? A. Decrease blood pressure B. Increase viscosity C. Vasoconstriction D. Polycythemia E. Increase vessel length F. Increase vessel radius

Increase vessel radius

Which of the following arrhythmias would likely be the least dangerous? A. Left bundle branch block B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Atrial fibrillation D. Total heart block

Atrial fibrillation

Consider the conduction system of the heart. The ___ receives excitation just before excitation of the ___. A. Internodal pathways; sinoatrial node B. Atrioventricular bundle; bundle branches C. Atrioventricular node; Purkinje fibers D. Internodal pathways; Purkinje fibers

Atrioventricular bundle; bundle branches

Which of these would describe an example of artificially-acquired, passive immunity? A. Placental transfer of antigens from mother to fetus B. Immunization from a strain of the cold virus due to exchange of bodily fluids C. Maternal transfer of antibodies from breast milk D. Serum infusions for treating snake venom

Serum infusions for treating snake venom

Which of the following lists cardiac rhythm patterns fastest → slowest? A. Junctional; ectopic; sinus B. Ectopic; junctional; sinus C. Sinus; ectopic; junctional D. Junctional; sinus; ectopic E. Ectopic; sinus; junctional F. Sinus; junctional; ectopic

Ectopic; sinus; junctional

During which event do AV valves close? A. Atrial systole B. Isovolumetric contraction C. Quiescence D. Ventricular filling

Isovolumetric contraction

Which are features of external innate barriers? A. Cytokines B. Pus C. Antibodies D. Sebum

Sebum

Adrenergic stimulation of ventricular myocardium leads to? A. Positive inotropism B. Positive chronotropism C. Quiescence D. Diastole

Positive inotropism

Most common fatal coronary thrombosis occurs in: A. Left marginal artery B. Anterior interventricular artery C. Circumflex artery D. Coronary sinus

Anterior interventricular artery

Liver failure would most likely lead to: A. Leukemia B. Bleeding disorder C. Polycythemia D. Dehydration

Bleeding disorder

Which dietary nutrient is essential for RBC production but not hemoglobin? A. Folate B. Iron C. Vitamin B6

Folate

Which of these would likely occur during decompensated shock? A. Cerebral ischemia B. Increased cardiac output C. Increased venous return D. Coagulation E. Tachycardia F. Increased blood pressure

Cerebral ischemia; Coagulation

Regarding pressure and fluid flow dynamics, which statement(s) is/are true? A. During diastole, the heart reduces pressure at the source to drive flow into its chambers B. Increased resistance within the vascular tree occurs primarily at the level of the arterioles C. Vessel radius is the major determinant of resistance and the pressure required to drive flow D. Higher pressure forces at the destination of the flowing fluid will require more pressure to drive the flow to this destination E. Higher resistance forces will require less pressure to drive fluid flow F. Valve movements are the primary source of pressure required to drive flow through the systemic arterial circuit

Increased resistance within the vascular tree occurs primarily at the level of the arterioles; Vessel radius is the major determinant of resistance; Higher pressure at the destination requires more driving pressure

Which of the following is/are NOT function(s) of the lymphatic system? A. Absorb dietary lipids B. Recover fluid from the filtrate to deposit in the minor calyx C. Remove foreign matter from fluid before returning to the blood D. Provide a network for immune surveillance E. Absorb dietary proteins F. Provide nutrients to body tissues

Recover fluid from the filtrate to deposit in the minor calyx; Absorb dietary proteins; Provide nutrients to body tissues

Tissues can become edematous (swollen) when which of these occurs? A. Hypoproteinemia B. Reduced capillary colloid osmotic pressure C. Elevated interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure D. Elevated viscosity E. Reduced interstitial fluid osmotic pressure F. Dietary protein excess

Hypoproteinemia; Reduced capillary colloid osmotic pressure

Continuous capillaries can be found in which of the following? A. Brain B. Spleen C. Aortic arch D. Small intestine E. Lungs F. Kidneys

Brain; Lungs

Which of these pairs identifies a cardiac structure matched with its correct location? A. Atrioventricular node: interventricular septum B. Papillary muscle: left atrium C. Ligamentum arteriosum: right atrium D. Pectinate muscle: right atrium E. Visceral pericardium: epicardial fat F. Bicuspid valve: entrance to the left ventricle

Pectinate muscle: right atrium

Which of these would be considered a cardiac pathophysiology/disease? A. Pericarditis B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation C. Aneurysm D. Mitral valve prolapse E. Cardiogenic shock F. Erythropenia

Pericarditis; Mitral valve prolapse; Cardiogenic shock

Under normal conditions, which hormone(s) directly and indirectly reduce(s) blood pressure? A. Parathyroid hormone B. Angiotensin II C. Cortisol D. Aldosterone E. Antidiuretic hormone F. Atrial natriuretic peptide

Atrial natriuretic peptide

Which of these is/are a potential cause(s) of anemia? A. Edema B. Tachycardia C. Hemorrhage D. Nutrient deficiency E. Hemoglobin mutations F. Excess iron intake

Hemorrhage; Nutrient deficiency; Hemoglobin mutations

Which of these is/are always required for active immunity (immunization)? A. Clonal selection B. Antigen presentation C. Neutrophilia D. Memory cell formation E. Fever F. T helper cell activation

Clonal selection; Antigen presentation; Memory cell formation; T helper cell activation

Effector cells: A. Avidly phagocytic monocyte descendants B. Releases enzymes to destroy large endoparasites C. Involved in both T and B cell activation D. Secretes histamine and heparin E. Destroy infected or mutated "self" cells F. Short-lived, high antibody-producing cells G. Produce the "respiratory burst."

Short-lived, high antibody-producing cells

Helper cells: A. Avidly phagocytic monocyte descendants B. Releases enzymes to destroy large endoparasites C. Involved in both T and B cell activation D. Secretes histamine and heparin E. Destroy infected or mutated "self" cells F. Short-lived, high antibody-producing cells G. Produce the "respiratory burst."

Involved in both T and B cell activation

Basophils: A. Avidly phagocytic monocyte descendants B. Releases enzymes to destroy large endoparasites C. Involved in both T and B cell activation D. Secretes histamine and heparin E. Destroy infected or mutated "self" cells F. Short-lived, high antibody-producing cells G. Produce the "respiratory burst."

Secretes histamine and heparin

Cytotoxic cells: A. Avidly phagocytic monocyte descendants B. Releases enzymes to destroy large endoparasites C. Involved in both T and B cell activation D. Secretes histamine and heparin E. Destroy infected or mutated "self" cells F. Short-lived, high antibody-producing cells G. Produce the "respiratory burst."

Destroy infected or mutated "self" cells

Macrophages: A. Avidly phagocytic monocyte descendants B. Releases enzymes to destroy large endoparasites C. Involved in both T and B cell activation D. Secretes histamine and heparin E. Destroy infected or mutated "self" cells F. Short-lived, high antibody-producing cells G. Produce the "respiratory burst."

Avidly phagocytic monocyte descendants

Natural killer cells: A. Avidly phagocytic monocyte descendants B. Releases enzymes to destroy large endoparasites C. Involved in both T and B cell activation D. Secretes histamine and heparin E. Destroy infected or mutated "self" cells F. Short-lived, high antibody-producing cells G. Produce the "respiratory burst."

Destroy infected or mutated "self" cells

Neutrophils: A. Avidly phagocytic monocyte descendants B. Releases enzymes to destroy large endoparasites C. Involved in both T and B cell activation D. Secretes histamine and heparin E. Destroy infected or mutated "self" cells F. Short-lived, high antibody-producing cells G. Produce the "respiratory burst."

Produce the "respiratory burst."