[10.31b] Common Ear Diseases (Part 2) V2.pdf

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Last updated 3:35 AM on 4/15/26
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208 Terms

1
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Extracranial and intracranial

What are the two main categories for complications of otitis media?

2
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Intratemporal and extratemporal

What are the two subcategories of extracranial complications?

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Inside the temporal bone

What does the term intratemporal mean in the context of ear disease?

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Mastoiditis, ossicular erosion, sensorineural hearing loss, facial nerve paralysis, labyrinthine fistula, labyrinthitis, and petrous apicitis

What are the seven intratemporal complications listed in the source?

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Toxins from a long standing infection

What can affect the hair cells in the cochlea to cause sensorineural hearing loss?

6
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Middle ear

Where are the intratemporal branches of the facial nerve specifically housed?

7
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Erosion of the endosteal layer of the semicircular canal

What is the cause of a labyrinthine fistula?

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Labyrinthitis

Which condition is defined as the entire cochlea being affected?

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Petrous apicitis

Which condition is defined as the entire temporal bone being infected?

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Outside the temporal bone

What does the term extratemporal mean?

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Subperiosteal abscess, zygomatic abscess, Bezold abscess, postauricular fistula, and extra mastoid cholesteatoma

What are the five extratemporal complications listed?

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Subperiosteal abscess

Which abscess is usually seen at the back of the ear and presents as a fluctuant area?

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Root of the zygoma

Which anatomical structure is in close proximity to the temporal bone and can be infected due to cholesteatoma?

14
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Postauricular fistula

What is the result when an untreated abscess creates a draining opening outside of the skin?

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Horizontal canal

Which semicircular canal is in closest proximity to the ossicles?

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Horizontal semicircular canal

Aside from the ossicles, what is the first structure affected when cholesteatoma occupies the entire middle ear?

17
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Hearing loss and intense dizziness

What are the two results of erosion causing communication between the endosteum and endolymph?

18
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Fistula test

Which test provides an inkling that a patient might have semicircular canal dehiscence or erosion?

19
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Meningitis, brain abscess, subdural empyema, epidural abscess, sigmoid sinus septic thrombophlebitis, and otitic hydrocephalus

Name the six intracranial complications listed.

20
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Ascending infection

What do meningitis, brain abscesses, and empyemas signify in the context of otitis media?

21
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MRI with gadolinium contrast

What is the best imaging study for intracranial complications?

22
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Sigmoid sinus septic thrombophlebitis

Which complication involves a thrombus formed due to infection that propagates in the sigmoid sinus?

23
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Picket fence fever pattern

What specific fever pattern on top of a draining ear heralds sigmoid sinus septic thrombophlebitis?

24
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Otitic hydrocephalus

Which rare complication involves increased intracranial pressure with focal neurologic tendencies?

25
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Abnormal bone remodeling

What is the definition of otosclerosis?

26
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Caucasian population

In which population is otosclerosis common but not exclusive?

27
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Round window

In otosclerosis, where is the stapes footplate attached that becomes calcified?

28
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Conductive hearing loss

What is the initial manifestation of otosclerosis?

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Sensory hearing loss

What can severe otosclerosis progress to?

30
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Measles virus

Which virus is associated by some with the development of otosclerosis?

31
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Autosomal dominant transmission via COL1A1 gene

What is the genetic risk factor for otosclerosis?

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Type 1 Osteogenesis Imperfecta

Which bone disorder is a known risk factor for otosclerosis?

33
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Stapes prosthesis surgery

What is the treatment to establish sound conduction in otosclerosis?

34
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Extrapulmonary Tuberculosis

What was the diagnosis for Case #1 involving a 44 year old female with facial paralysis and dizziness?

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Silent otorrhea

What is the term for sudden ear discharge in extrapulmonary TB?

36
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GeneXpert or AFB smear

How is middle ear tuberculosis diagnosed since gram staining is not used?

37
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Medical treatment

Is otitis media from TB primarily treated medically or surgically?

38
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Concomitant cholesteatoma or the need for debridement due to osteolysis

When is surgery required for middle ear tuberculosis?

39
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Vertigo

What is the illusion of motion of either self or the environment?

40
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Umiikot or spinning

What Filipino or English terms are used by patients to describe vertigo?

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Para akong matutumba

What Filipino phrase identifies dysequilibrium?

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Vertigo, disequilibrium, presyncope, and lightheadedness

What are the four main categories of dizziness?

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45 to 54 percent

What percentage of dizzy patients fall into the vertigo category?

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Disequilibrium

Which category of dizziness is described as feeling off balance or wobbly?

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Presyncope

Which category involves the feeling of losing consciousness or blacking out?

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Lightheadedness

Which category involves vague symptoms or feeling disconnected from the environment?

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10 percent

Approximately what percentage of dizzy patients experience lightheadedness?

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Balance system

What system allows us to interact and maintain contact with our surroundings safely?

49
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Gravity

What is the constant factor the balance system considers in different environments?

50
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Visual, vestibular, and somatosensory

Which three organ systems integrate information onto the cortex for balance perception?

51
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Neurologic, hearing, ophthalmologic, and Dix Hallpike

What four assessments are done for patients with chronic dizziness?

52
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Vestibulo Ocular Reflex (VOR)

What is the reflexive eye movement in response to head movement called?

53
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Equal and opposite to head movement

How does eye movement compare to head movement in a functioning VOR?

54
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Stable gaze or clear focused vision during head movement

What does the VOR allow a person to maintain?

55
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Motion Provoked Dysequilibrium or Disorientation

What do patients with a chronic VOR deficit complain of instead of vertigo?

56
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Blurring of the visual field

What results from head movement in a patient with a VOR deficit?

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Peripheral vestibular level

At what level is the VOR the most important reflex for balance?

58
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Less than 1 minute

What is the typical timing of a BPPV episode?

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Change in head position relative to gravity

What is the trigger for BPPV?

60
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Hours

What is the typical duration of a Meniere disease episode?

61
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Vertigo and unilateral tinnitus

What are the characteristic symptoms of Meniere disease in the timing table?

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Salt, caffeine, tobacco, stress, and alcohol

What are the five triggers listed for Meniere disease?

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Hours

What is the typical timing for a vestibular migraine?

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Chocolate, cheese, red wine, hormonal changes, and bright light

Name five triggers for vestibular migraine.

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Hours to days

What is the timing for vestibular neuritis or labyrinthitis?

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Prior viral symptoms

What often precedes vestibular neuritis?

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Sudden onset persistent symptoms

What is the timing for a cerebellar stroke?

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Stroke risk factors

What are the primary triggers for a cerebellar stroke?

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Situational

What is the trigger category for anxiety or hyperventilation?

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Lightheadedness and paresthesias

What are the symptoms of anxiety related dizziness?

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1st Group

Which group of dizzy patients says I am not dizzy now but I get dizzy sometimes?

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2nd Group

Which group says I am dizzy now and often presents in the ER?

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3rd Group

Which group says I am unsteady, off balance, or afraid of falling?

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Fixation suppression, saccade, smooth pursuit, and head impulse

Name four directed physical examination tests for dizziness.

75
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Gaze evoked nystagmus

Which test involves the patient following the physician's finger to check for unstable eye movement?

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Test of skew

What is another name for the cover uncover test?

77
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Caloric test

Which test stimulates the endolymph to see if it produces eye movement?

78
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Intact tympanic membrane

What is the physical requirement for a patient to undergo a caloric test?

79
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Frenzel glasses

What equipment is worn by the patient during eye movement examination to prevent fixation?

80
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Cold Opposite Warm Same

What does the COWS mnemonic stand for regarding the caloric test?

81
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Vestibulo ocular, vestibulo spinal, and vestibulo colic

What are the three reflexes found in the peripheral system?

82
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Nystagmus

A disturbed VOR is seen in cases of what specific eye movement?

83
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Utricles

Which part of the bony labyrinth detects horizontal linear acceleration?

84
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Saccules

Which part of the bony labyrinth detects vertical linear acceleration?

85
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Semicircular canals

Which parts detect angular acceleration?

86
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Six

How many total SCCs are there in both ears?

87
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LARP pairing

What is the acronym for the left anterior and right posterior SCC pair?

88
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Right superior and left posterior

What is the pair for the right superior SCC?

89
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Brain and eyes

The bony labyrinth organs have direct connections to which two areas?

90
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Ewald 1st Law

Which law states that SCC stimulation causes eye movement in the plane of that canal?

91
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Medial and lateral rectus

Which muscles receive impulses specifically from the horizontal canal?

92
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Saccades

What refers to a delay of eye movement in relation to head movement?

93
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Central lesion

If head movement to the right causes the eye to move upwards, what type of lesion is suspected?

94
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90 spikes per second

What is the assumed innervation rate for SCCs in a resting normal individual?

95
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Left side

If the right SCC is at 45 spikes and the left is at 90, which side does the brain think is excited?

96
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Delay in eye movement

What happens to the eye in a saccade when SCCs are not equally stimulated?

97
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Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo

What is the most common vestibular disorder in the outpatient clinic?

98
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Barany Society

Which society provides the criteria for BPPV?

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Lying down or turning over while supine

What specific positions trigger nystagmus in BPPV?

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Torsional nystagmus with upper pole beating toward the lower ear

How is nystagmus described in posterior canal BPPV?