IPS2 -[Practice Question] -Part 2

B. I, II

(I) renovascular disease

(II) hemorrhagic stroke

Chronically elevated arterial pressure may cause:

I. renovascular disease

II. hemorrhagic stroke

III. Nasal congestion

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

B. I, II

(I) Can occur in different organs

(II) May result in myocardial infarction

Atherosclerosis:

I. Can occur in different organs

II. May result in myocardial infarction

III. Causes chest pain

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

B. I, II

(I) Exercise

(II) Anxiety

Patients with angina pectoris may be advised that factors which precipitate an attack include:

I. Exercise

II. Anxiety

III. Light meals

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

C. II, III

(II) to attain normal body weight

(III) to undertake moderate exercise

After myocardial infarction, a patient should be advised:

I. that normal activity can never be achieved

II. to attain normal body weight

III. to undertake moderate exercise

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

B. I, II

(I) biliary colic

(II) jaundice

Common complications of gallstones include:

I. biliary colic

II. jaundice

III. appendicitis

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

B. I, II

(I) disease progression is very gradual

(II) weight loss is recommended

Patients with osteoarthritis should be informed that:

I. disease progression is very gradual

II. weight loss is recommended

III. prolonged bed-rest is advisable

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

A. I, II, III

(I) nausea and vomiting may occur before treatment

(II) hair loss may occur

(III) any signs of infection should be reported to a health professional

Patients receiving cytotoxic chemotherapy should be advised that:

I. nausea and vomiting may occur before treatment

II. hair loss may occur

III. any signs of infection should be reported to a health professional

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

D. I

(I) the incident has to be investigated

When patient presents with a fall and a blackout:

I. the incident has to be investigated

II. the patient has epilepsy

III. the incident should only cause alarm only if it occurs in pediatric patients

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

B. I, II

(I) vomiting

(II) drugs

Hypokalemia may be due to:

I. vomiting

II. drugs

III. Renal failure

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

A. I, II, III

(I) sweating

(II) hunger

(III) Blurred vision

Clinical features of hypoglycemia include:

I. sweating

II. hunger

III. Blurred vision

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

B. I, II

(I) rash

(II) bronchoconstriction

*(III) profound hypotension

Anaphylactic shock could present with:

I. rash

II. bronchoconstriction

III. hypertension

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

A. I, II, III

(I) Retinopathy

(II) chronic renal failure

(III) Ischemic heart disease

Diabetic patients should be advised to monitor their condition because they are prone to develop:

I. Retinopathy

II. chronic renal failure

III. Ischemic heart disease

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

A. I, II, III

(I) is 0.9% NaCl

(II) used for electrolyte imbalance

(III) may be applied as nasal drops

Normal saline:

I. is 0.9% NaCl

II. used for electrolyte imbalance

III. may be applied as nasal drops

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

A. I, II, III

(I) corneal thinning

(II) glaucoma

(III) cataracts

Disadvantages of administration of corticosteroids in the eyes include:

I. corneal thinning

II. glaucoma

III. cataracts

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

B. Cefuroxime

XY is a 49-year-old patient who is allergic to penicillin. She was prescribed erythromycin for cellulitis. She developed a rash and erythromycin was withdrawn.

Which of the following antibacterial agents is the most appropriate for XY?

A. Flucloxacillin

B. Cefuroxime

C. Nalidixic acid

D. Fluconazole

E. Isoniazid

B. I, II

(I) development of rash should be monitored

(II) signs of anaphylaxis should be detected

XY is a 49-year-old patient who is allergic to penicillin. She was prescribed erythromycin for cellulitis. She developed a rash and erythromycin was withdrawn.

When XY is started on the new treatment:

I. development of rash should be monitored

II. signs of anaphylaxis should be detected

III. an allergic reaction could develop after a month after last drug administration

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

D. I

(I) tends to have a chronic pattern

*(II) and (III) are applicable for migraine headache

GM is a 28-year-old female who suffers from tension headache. She would like to have medication that is stronger than paracetamol.

Tension headache:

I. tends to have a chronic pattern

II. is due to arterial vasoconstriction

III. occurs only in young adults

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

A. I, II, III

(I) feeling of bilateral "hatband"

(II) pain is non-throbbing

(III) sound intolerance

GM is a 28-year-old female who suffers from tension headache. She would like to have medication that is stronger than paracetamol.

Characteristics of patients with tension headache are:

I. feeling of bilateral “hatband”

II. pain is non-throbbing

III. sound intolerance

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

D. I

(I) adapt a less stressful life

GM is a 28-year-old female who suffers from tension headache. She would like to have medication that is stronger than paracetamol.

GM could be advised to:

I. adapt a less stressful life

II. avoid consumption of cheese

III. change employment

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

B. I, II

(I) Dolcet

(II) Ibuprofen

GM is a 28-year-old female who suffers from tension headache. She would like to have medication that is stronger than paracetamol.

Analgesics that could be recommended to GM include:

I. Dolcet

II. Ibuprofen

III. Amitriptyline

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

C. II, III

(II) has a history of gastric ulceration

(III) is breast-feeding

GM is a 28-year-old female who suffers from tension headache. She would like to have medication that is stronger than paracetamol.

The use of aspirin would not be recommended if GM:

I. has hypertension

II. has a history of gastric ulceration

III. is breast-feeding

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

A. PMH - Past Medical History

Is a description of conditions that the patient has experienced previously.

A. PMH

B. PE

C. SH

D. CC

E. FH

D. CC - Chief Complaint

Is the patients main reason for seeking medical consult.

A. PMH

B. PE

C. SH

D. CC

E. FH

B. PE - Physical Examination

Is the findings of the examination of the patient.

A. PMH

B. PE

C. SH

D. CC

E. FH

B. BUN

Is carried out as a part of kidney function monitoring.

A. HbA1c

B. BUN

C. TSH

D. LFT

F. MCV

C. TSH

Is carried out in thyroid function monitoring.

A. HbA1c

B. BUN

C. TSH

D. LFT

F. MCV

A. HbA1c

Is used to monitor diabetic patients.

A. HbA1c

B. BUN

C. TSH

D. LFT

F. MCV

D. Wilson's disease

Abnormal copper metabolism

A. Pheochromocytoma

B. Cushing's syndrome

C. Cirrhosis

D. Wilson's disease

E. Dysentery

B. Cushing's syndrome

Accumulation of fat in the face, chest and upper back.

A. Pheochromocytoma

B. Cushing's syndrome

C. Cirrhosis

D. Wilson's disease

E. Dysentery

A. Pheochromocytoma

*Cirrhosis - liver damage

*Dysentery - Intestinal infection, bloody diarrhea

Hyper secretion of adrenaline and noradrenaline.

A. Pheochromocytoma

B. Cushing's syndrome

C. Cirrhosis

D. Wilson's disease

E. Dysentery

C. hypercalcemia

May occur as a result of hyperparathyroidism.

A. hypernatremia

B. hyponatremia

C. hypercalcemia

D. hypocalcemia

E. hypokalemia

E. hypokalemia

May present with arrhythmias.

A. hypernatremia

B. hyponatremia

C. hypercalcemia

D. hypocalcemia

E. hypokalemia

E. hypokalemia

Predisposes to digoxin toxicity.

A. hypernatremia

B. hyponatremia

C. hypercalcemia

D. hypocalcemia

E. hypokalemia

A. I, II, III

(I) is used for pain relief

(II) contains a pure agonist for u-opioid receptors

(III) provides long-lasting analgesic effect

Transdermal fentanyl

I. is used for pain relief

II. contains a pure agonist for u-opioid receptors

III. provides long-lasting analgesic effect

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

A. I, II, III

(I) changes in vitamin K intake

(II) major changes in intake of salads and vegetables

(III) major changes in alcohol consumption

Unexpected fluctuations in dose response in patients receiving warfarin may be attributed to:

I. changes in vitamin K intake

II. major changes in intake of salads and vegetables

III. major changes in alcohol consumption

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

A. I, II, III

(I) dopamine receptors

(II) serotonin receptors

(III) muscarinic receptors

Clozapine has an affinity for:

I. dopamine receptors

II. serotonin receptors

III. muscarinic receptors

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

B. I, II

(I) has an inhibitory effect on T-lymphocytes

(II) may cause a dose dependent increase in serum creatinine during first few weeks of treatment

Cliclosporin

I. has an inhibitory effect on T-lymphocytes

II. may casue a dose dependent increase in serum creatinine during first few weeks of treatment

III. cause hyperliidemia

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

D. I

(I) Plasma potassium

When candesartan is started in the older person, recommended monitoring includes:

I. Plasma potassium

II. bilirubin

III. blood glucose

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

C. II, III

(II) growth is androgen dependent

(III) may be diagnosed by prostate-specific antigen screening

Prostate cancer:

I. testosterone replacement therapy is mainstay of treatment

II. growth is androgen dependent

III. may be diagnosed by prostate-specific antigen screening

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

D. I

(I) may be administered with dexamethasone

*First choice for managing delayed CINV are Metoclopramide and Prochlorperazine

Ondansetron:

I. may be administered with dexamethasone

II. is the drug of first choice in managing delayed CINV

III. is used prophylactically for motion sickness

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

E. III

(III) leucopenia

Dose reduction and delays in administration of planned cytotoxic chemotherapy are caused by:

I. Alopecia

II. extravasation

III. leucopenia

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

B. I, III

(I) Forced expiratory volume

(II) Forced vital capacity

Spirometry measures:

I. Forced expiratory volume

II. Forced vital capacity

III. total lung capacity

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

A. I, II, III

(I) is a cause of nosocomial infections

(II) spreading the infection may be reduced by alcohol hand rubs

(III) presents an economic issue to institutions

Methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus:

I. is a cause of nosocomial infections

II. spreading the infection may be reduced by alcohol hand rubs

III. presents an economic issue to institutions

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

D. I

(I) is found predominantly in the liver

Alanine aminotransferase:

I. is found predominantly in the liver

II. levels are significantly decreased in viral hepatitis

III. is never released into the bloodstream

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

E. III

(III) is produced by the adrenal cortex

Aldosterone:

I. production is regulated primarily by the liver

II. levels are decreased by low-sodium diets

III. is produced by the adrenal cortex

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

A. I, II, III

(I) is an indicator of renal disease

(II) may be an indicator of pre-eclampsia

(III) 24-hour urine specimen collection could be recommended if proteinuria is significant

Proteinuria:

I. is an indicator of renal disease

II. may be an indicator of pre-eclampsia

III. 24-hour urine specimen collection could be recommended if proteinuria is significant

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

B. I, II

(I) to self-monitor blood glucose

(II) to have access to a source of fast sugars

Patients with type I diabetes should be advised:

I. to self-monitor blood glucose

II. to have access to a source of fast sugars

III. to avoid participating in sports

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

D. I

(I) decreases platelet aggregation

When aspirin is compared with warfarin:

I. decreases platelet aggregation

II. has higher rates of major hemorrhage

III. requires the same degree of monitoring

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

B. I, II

(I) present with visceral pain in the abdomen

(II) report precipitation of the condition with fatty meals

Patients with gallstone disease:

I. present with visceral pain in the abdomen

II. report precipitation of the condition with fatty meals

III. are referred for a gastroscopy

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

C. II, III

(II) occurs more commonly in obese patients

(III) presents with snoring

Sleep apnea:

I. is associated with cessation of breathing for at least 5 minutes during sleep

II. occurs more commonly in obese patients

III. presents with snoring

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

B. I, II

(I) anti-emetic

(II) analgesia

*(III) appetite stimulant

Potential beneficial effects of cannabis include:

I. anti-emetic

II. analgesia

III. appetite suppressant

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

D. I

(I) Corticosteroids

Drugs that may cause hypertension include:

I. Corticosteroids

II. phenothiazines

III. alpha-adrenoreceptor blockers

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

B. I, II

(I) to take the preparation with food

(II) that stools may be black-colored

Patients receiving oral iron tablets should be advised:

I. to take the preparation with food

II. that stools may be black-colored

III. to rinse their mouth after drug administration

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

A. I, II, III

(I) bronchospasm

(II) increased airway resistance

(III) inflammation

In an asthma attack, the following condition/s occur/s:

I. bronchospasm

II. increased airway resistance

III. inflammation

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

A. I, II, III

(I) histamine

(II) leukotrienes

(III) prostaglandins

Inflammatory mediators that are released in an asthmatic attack include:

I. histamine

II. leukotrienes

III. prostaglandins

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

A. I, II, III

(I) diclofenac

(II) atenolol

(III) timolol

Drugs that may provoke asthmatic attack include:

I. diclofenac

II. atenolol

III. timolol

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

A. I, II, III

I. tachycardia

II. tachypnea

III.exhaustion

Signs and symptoms of an acute severe asthma attack include:

I. tachycardia

II. tachypnea

III.exhaustion

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

E. it may cause arterial hypoxemia

Salbutamol nebulizer is used in combination with oxygen because:

A. it may mask symptom severity

B. aggressive treatment is required

C. the dose is lower than administered by inhaler

D. it may cause hypovolemia

E. it may cause arterial hypoxemia

C. II, III

(II) blood gases

(III) plasma potassium concentration

Parameters that require monitoring in an asthma patient include:

I. urinary flow

II. blood gases

III. plasma potassium concentration

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

B. I, II

(I) is also available for oral administration

(II) active against haemophilus influenza

Cefuroxime is:

I. is also available for oral administration

II. active against haemophilus influenza

III. highly effective against Gram-negative bacteria

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

D. I

(I) is a macrolide

Clarithromycin is:

I. is a macrolide

II. achieves lower tissue concentrations than erythromycin

III. has poor activity against Haemophilus influenzae

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

E. III

(III) to inhibit the production and release of pro-inflammatory agents

Intravenous hydrocortisone is indicated in asthma attacks:

I. to avoid anaphylactic shock

II. for its mineralocorticoid effects

III. to inhibit the production and release of pro-inflammatory agents

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

C. II, III

(II) enteric coated formulation is preferred

(III) dose should be divided into twice daily administration

When administering prednisolone:

I. it should be taken after food

II. enteric coated formulation is preferred

III. dose should be divided into twice daily administration

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

B. I, II

(I) are devices producing an aerosol from an aqueous solution

(II) should be washed out to avoid microbial growth

Nebulisers:

I. are devices producing an aerosol from an aqueous solution

II. should be washed out to avoid microbial growth

III. salbutamol injection solution is used to administer salbutamol by nebulization

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

E. III

(III) may cause oral candidiasis

Beclometasone inhaler:

I. is more effective than budesonide

II. may be used to control an attack

III. may cause oral candidiasis

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

B. I, II

(I) Osteoporosis

(II) hoarseness

Long-term inhalation of high doses of beclometasone may predispose patients to:

I. Osteoporosis

II. hoarseness

III. hypertension

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

B. I, II

(I) is longer-acting than salbutamol

(II) may be used in combination with beclometasone

Salmeterol:

I. is longer-acting than salbutamol

II. may be used in combination with beclometasone

III. could replace salbutamol use

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

A. I, II, III

(I) tachycardia

(II) sweating

(III) breathlessness

Which of the following signs and symptoms suggest an angina attack?

I. tachycardia

II. sweating

III. breathlessness

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

B. I, II

(I) ECG

(II) blood pressure

During an angina attack, investigations that are indicated include:

I. ECG

II. blood pressure

III. coronary angiogram

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

A. I, II, III

(I) to reduce symptoms

(II) to improve exercise capacity

(III) to reduce risk of heart attack

The goals of treatment for angina include:

I. to reduce symptoms

II. to improve exercise capacity

III. to reduce risk of heart attack

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

A. I, II, III

(I) reduce cardiac oxygen demand

(II) provide antithrombotic activity

(III) provide antiplatelet therapy

Upon admission of an angina patient, therapeutic management should aim to:

I. reduce cardiac oxygen demand

II. provide antithrombotic activity

III. provide antiplatelet therapy

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

C. II, III

(II) flushing may occur

(III) patient may complain of throbbing headache

Isosorbide dinitrate:

I. is a coronary vasoconstrictor

II. flushing may occur

III. patient may complain of throbbing headache

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

A. I, II, III

(I) has a rapid onset of action

(II) has a short duration of action

(III) patient should be monitored for signs of hemorrhage

Heparin:

I. has a rapid onset of action

II. has a short duration of action

III. patient should be monitored for signs of hemorrhage

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

A. I, II, III

(I) is an ACE inhibitor

(II) is indicated for hypertension in diabetic patients

(III) is used for long-term management of MI

Enalapril:

I. is an ACE inhibitor

II. is indicated for hypertension in diabetic patients

III. is used for long-term management of MI

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

A. I, II, III

(I) does not cause insulin release

(II) may provoke lactic acidosis

(III) requires monitoring of renal function

Metformin:

I. does not cause insulin release

II. may provoke lactic acidosis

III. requires monitoring of renal function

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

A. I, II, III

(I) does not precipitate hypoglycemia

(II) should be taken with meals

(III) is indicated to obese patients

Metformin:

I. does not precipitate hypoglycemia

II. should be taken with meals

III. is indicated to obese patients

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

B. I, II

(I) Enalapril

(II) heparin

Drugs that are known to cause hyperkalemia is/are:

I. Enalapril

II. heparin

III. furosemide

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

D. I

(I) to return for monitoring of liver function tests

Patients taking simvastatin should be advised:

I. to return for monitoring of liver function tests

II. that this medication is only for short-term until LDL levels normalize

III. to avoid use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III.

A. I, II, III

(I) to apply patch on chest wall, upper arm or shoulder

(II) to change daily

(III) to remove at night

Patients using nitroglycerin patch should be advised:

I. to apply patch on chest wall, upper arm or shoulder

II. to change daily

III. to remove at night

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

B. I, II

(I) be administered before food

(II) to be used with caution in hypotension

*(III) can be given with aspirin

Dipyridamole should:

I. be administered before food

II. to be used with caution in hypotension

III. not to be given with aspirin

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

A. I, II, III

(I) headache

(II) abdominal distress

(III) hot flushes

Side-effects associated with dipyridamole include:

I. headache

II. abdominal distress

III. hot flushes

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

E. III

(III) relaxes coronary and peripheral arteries

Nifedipine:

I. commonly precipitates heart failure

II. is a highly negative inotropic agent

III. relaxes coronary and peripheral arteries

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

B. I, II

(I) large variations in blood pressure

(II) reflex tachycardia

Modified-release formulations of nifedipine are preferred to prevent:

I. large variations in blood pressure

II. reflex tachycardia

III. decreased effect in patients with short bowel syndrome

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

D. I

(I) has a longer half life than the dinitrate salt

*(II) has great bioavailability after oral administration

*(III) is used in angina pectoris

Isosorbide mononitrate:

I. has a longer half life than the dinitrate salt

II. has poor bioavailability after oral administration

III. is used in hypertension

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

E. III

(III) affects synovial joints

Rheumatoid arthritis:

I. is a localized condition

II. occurs as a consequence of trauma

III. affects synovial joints

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

A. I, II, III

I. is insidious

II. occurs symmetrically

III. is polyarticular

Onset of rheumatoid arthritis:

I. is insidious

II. occurs symmetrically

III. is polyarticular

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

A. I, II, III

(I) duration of morning stiffness

(II) ability to dress

(III) grip strength

In monitoring effectiveness of treatment for RA patients, functional factors to be considered include:

I. duration of morning stiffness

II. ability to dress

III. grip strength

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

A. Ophthalmoscope

Used to investigate retinopathy.

A. Ophthalmoscope

B. Otoscope

C. Stethoscope

D. Sphymomanometer

E. Reflex hammer

C. Stethoscope

Used to assess breath sounds.

A. Ophthalmoscope

B. Otoscope

C. Stethoscope

D. Sphymomanometer

E. Reflex hammer

E. Reflex hammer

Used to test deep tendon reflexes.

A. Ophthalmoscope

B. Otoscope

C. Stethoscope

D. Sphymomanometer

E. Reflex hammer

E. human chorionic gonadotropin

Produced by placenta.

A. GNRH

B. C peptide

C. troponin I

D. prolactin

E. human chorionic gonadotropin

B. C peptide

Released from the beta cells of the pancreas.

A. GNRH

B. C peptide

C. troponin I

D. prolactin

E. human chorionic gonadotropin

D. prolactin

Released from the anterior pituitary gland

A. GNRH

B. C peptide

C. troponin I

D. prolactin

E. human chorionic gonadotropin

A. I, II, III

(I) is found in skeletal muscle

(II) isoenzyme fractions are used to identify the type of tissue damaged

(III) CK-MB are detected in blood within 3-5 hours of a myocardial infarction

Creatinine kinase:

I. is found in skeletal muscle

II. isoenzyme fractions are used to identify the type of tissue damaged

III. CK-MB are detected in blood within 3-5 hours of a myocardial infarction

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

D. I

(I) is usually carried out postoperatively

*(III) when positive, indicates presence of peristalsis

Auscultation of bowel sounds:

I. is usually carried out postoperatively

II. always requires a stethoscope

III. when positive, indicates absence of peristalsis

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

B. I, II

I. hemoglobin quantification

II. WBC count

A complete blood count consists of:

I. hemoglobin quantification

II. WBC count

III. blood crossmatching

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

B. I, II

(I) is a non-specific indicator of inflammation

(II) measures the rate at which red blood cells settle out of mixed venous blood

The erythrocyte sedimentation rate:

I. is a non-specific indicator of inflammation

II. measures the rate at which red blood cells settle out of mixed venous blood

III. determination is based on protein electrophoresis

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

A. I, II, III

I. acid regurgitation

II. dysphagia

III. stricture formation

Gastro-esophageal reflux disease may be associated with:

I. acid regurgitation

II. dysphagia

III. stricture formation

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

E. III

(III) amiodarone

Patients should be advised to avoid direct sunlight when taking:

I. gliclazide

II. clarithromycin

III. amiodarone

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III

F. I, III

A. I, II, III

(I) are prepared from polled human plasma or serum

(II) are tested for hepatitis B surface antigen

(III) are less likely to be associated with hypersensitivity reactions compared with antisera

Human immunoglobulins:

I. are prepared from polled human plasma or serum

II. are tested for hepatitis B surface antigen

III. are less likely to be associated with hypersensitivity reactions compared with antisera

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. I

E. III