1C8X3 CDC Vol. 3 Unit Review Questions (Fixed Radar Systems)

(401) How many amplifiers are in the Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR) transmitter?

a. 1.

b. 4.

c. 8.

d. 12.

c. 8.

(401) Where are Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR) failures reported?

a. Sensitivity Monitoring Control System (SMCS).

b. Control and Monitoring System (CMS).

c. Redundant Monitoring System (RMS).

d. Test and Monitoring System (TMS).

b. Control and Monitoring System (CMS).

(401) What is the frequency range of the Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR)?

a. 2600-2900 megahertz (MHz).

b. 2600-3000 MHz.

c. 2700-2900 MHz.

d. 2700-3000 MHz.

c. 2700-2900 MHz.

(402) In the Monopulse Secondary Surveillance Radar (MSSR), when the operational on-line channel fails, what happens to the system?

a. Faulted channel waits 4 seconds, and then transfers operations to standby channel.

b. Faulted channel goes on-line then standby channel goes off-line within 4 seconds.

c. Standby channel waits 4 seconds to go on-line, and then faulted channel goes off-line.

d. Standby channel comes on-line and the faulted channel goes off-line not to exceed 4 seconds.

d. Standby channel comes on-line and the faulted channel goes off-line not to exceed 4 seconds.

(403) What does an aircraft's speed and angle in reference to a radar site determine?

a. Radial velocity.

b. Tangential phase.

c. Tangential pattern.

d. Blind pattern and phase.

a. Radial velocity.

(403) What term describes the condition of an aircraft becoming invisible to radar when it travels at a certain speed and creates a Doppler shift, the same as the pulse repetition frequency (PRF) of the radar?

a. Tangential phase.

b. Tangential speed.

c. Blind phase.

d. Blind speed.

d. Blind speed.

(403) What type of system can look at zero Doppler returns, compare them to a clutter map, and then determine whether the video return is ground clutter or a target?

a. Doppler phase.

b. Doppler speed.

c. Moving target indicator (MTI).

d. Moving target detection (MTD).

d. Moving target detection (MTD).

(403) How many Doppler filters are in the Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR)?

a. 1.

b. 3.

c. 5.

d. 7.

c. 5.

(403) What eliminates second-time-around targets in the Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR)?

a. Staggering the coherent processing interval (CPI) and performing an M of N function.

b. Staggering the coherent repetition oscillator and performing an M of N function.

c. Pulse repetition frequency (PRF) velocity.

d. PRF phasing.

a. Staggering the coherent processing interval (CPI) and performing an M of N function.

(403) Which ASR-11 beam is the normal radiation beam and is always used to transmit and receive?

a. L-beam.

b. S-beam.

c. Low beam.

d. High beam.

c. Low beam.

(404) What provides Ethernet connection from the Monopulse Secondary Surveillance Radar (MSSR) into the site control and data interfaces (SCDI) to provide an interface to the radar control panel (RCP) at the radar site?

a. Two MPS-800 servers.

b. Primary and secondary modems.

c. Advanced signal data processors (ASDP).

d. A down-converter (DCON) and an up-converter (UCON).

a. Two MPS-800 servers.

(404) In the Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR), if one transmitter amplifier module fails or is in standby, the remaining seven amplifier modules will provide a minimum of 14kW peak power. This is enough power to cover how many nautical miles (nm)?

a. 140.

b. 100.

c. 80.

d. 60.

d. 60.

(405) Originally, secondary radar technology was created while developing the radar to

a. increase the range of the primary radar.

b. provide more power to the primary radar.

c. identify a radar aircraft target as friend or foe.

d. provide range and azimuth to the primary radar.

c. identify a radar aircraft target as friend or foe.

(405) What does a secondary radar system provide that a primary does not?

a. Azimuth and range.

b. Identity and altitude.

c. Identity and azimuth.

d. Azimuth and altitude.

b. Identity and altitude.

(405) What does the use of two frequencies in secondary radar transactions eliminate?

a. Side lobe suppression.

b. Automatic altitude corrections.

c. Clutter caused by direct reflections.

d. Identification replies from transponders.

c. Clutter caused by direct reflections.

(405) What process is not necessary with digitized beacon and primary radar systems like the ASR-11?

a. Range.

b. Azimuth.

c. Correlation.

d. Synchronization.

d. Synchronization.

(405) The biggest upgrade Monopulse Secondary Surveillance Radars (MSSR) have over older beacon radars is they

a. do not require range measurements.

b. decreased the amount of antenna patterns used.

c. can determine azimuth from one return of a transponder.

d. allow more than one aircraft to have the same discrete codes.

c. can determine azimuth from one return of a transponder.

(405) The Sum port is the main beam of the antenna; the center of this main radar beam is known as the

a. boresight.

b. control beam.

c. azimuth angle.

d. antenna pattern median (APM).

a. boresight.

(406) The Monopulse Secondary Surveillance Radar (MSSR) transmitter produces coded pulses up to what power level?

a. 1,000 watts peak.

b. 1,200 watts peak.

c. 1,600 watts peak.

d. 2,000 watts peak.

d. 2,000 watts peak.

(406) Which Monopulse Secondary Surveillance Radar (MSSR) subassembly develops the radio frequency (RF) sample video for monitoring?

a. Driver.

b. Mode generator.

c. Transmitter interface.

d. Low duty power amplifier.

d. Low duty power amplifier.

(406) Which Monopulse Secondary Surveillance Radar (MSSR) subassembly injects the self-test pulse into each receiver?

a. Driver.

b. Mode generator.

c. Transmitter interface.

d. Low duty power amplifier.

c. Transmitter interface.

(406) What signal is created when the Monopulse Secondary Surveillance Radar (MSSR) receiver mixes the 1090 MHz replies with the local oscillator (LO) from the receiver interface?

a. 30 MHz stable local oscillator (STALO).

b. 60 MHz intermediate frequency (IF).

c. 90 MHz intermediate frequency.

d. 90 MHz stable local oscillator.

b. 60 MHz intermediate frequency (IF).

(406) What does the Monopulse Secondary Surveillance Radar (MSSR) plot processor do?

a. Groups replies from all reachable aircraft simultaneously and produces a compiled digitized report.

b. Examines plots and correlates them with existing tracks or past histories.

c. Groups replies from the same aircraft and produces a digitized report.

d. Decodes errant interrogations.

c. Groups replies from the same aircraft and produces a digitized report.

(406) How many columns are in the large vertical array (LVA) antenna?

a. 35.

b. 42.

c. 45.

d. 360.

a. 35.

(406) What Monopulse Secondary Surveillance Radar (MSSR) terminal is used for maintenance, troubleshooting, and optimization?

a. Special Position Terminal (SPT).

b. Open Maintenance Terminal (OMT).

c. Secondary Surveillance Terminal (SST).

d. Control and Monitoring System (CMS).

d. Control and Monitoring System (CMS).

(407) What is the frequency range of the Precision Approach Radar (PAR)?

a. 8.0 - 8.9 gigahertz (GHz).

b. 9.0 - 9.2 GHz.

c. 9.2 - 9.4 GHz.

d. 9.2 - 9.6 GHz.

b. 9.0 - 9.2 GHz.

(407) How many aircraft can the Precision Approach Radar (PAR) track simultaneously?

a. Up to 6.

b. Up to 9.

c. Up to 12.

d. Unlimited aircraft.

a. Up to 6.

(408) In the Precision Approach Radar (PAR), the display is divided into what two sections?

a. Azimuth and range data; elevation and range data.

b. Azimuth and elevation data; transponder data.

c. Noise clutter; interference.

d. Noise clutter; rain clutter.

a. Azimuth and range data; elevation and range data.

(409) How many airborne aircraft is the Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System (STARS) capable of tracking simultaneously within a terminal area?

a. Up to 1350.

b. Up to 1450.

c. Up to 1550.

d. Up to 1650.

a. Up to 1350.

(409) How many miles is the area of coverage for the Standard Terminal Automation

Replacement System (STARS)?

a. 300 by 300.

b. 400 by 400.

c. 500 by 500.

d. 600 by 600.

b. 400 by 400.

(409) How many Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System (STARS) geographic

regions are there in the United States?

a. 6.

b. 7.

c. 8.

d. 9.

d. 9.

(409) Which is not a basic element of the Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System

(STARS)?

a. STARS Operational Site (SOS).

b. Operational Support Facility (OSF).

c. STARS Central Operational Site (SCOS).

d. STARS Central Support Complex (SCSC).

c. STARS Central Operational Site (SCOS).

(409) What element of the Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System (STARS)

provides for centralized control of field support and hardware/software development?

a. STARS Operational Site (SOS).

b. Operational Support Facility (OSF).

c. STARS Central Operational Site (SCOS).

d. STARS Central Support Complex (SCSC).

d. STARS Central Support Complex (SCSC).

(409) What element of the Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System (STARS)

performs hardware and software maintenance, including site adaptation and site support for

multiple sites?

a. STARS Operational Site (SOS).

b. Operational Support Facility (OSF).

c. STARS Central Operational Site (SCOS).

d. STARS Central Support Complex (SCSC).

b. Operational Support Facility (OSF).

(410) Which is not an element of surveillance radar data?

a. Weather information.

b. Primary radar returns.

c. National Airspace System (NAS) information.

d. Real time quality control (RTQC) to confirm accuracy of data.

c. National Airspace System (NAS) information.

(410) The Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System Operational Site (SOS) consists of what two subsystems?

a. Full Service, Emergency Service.

b. Terminal Automation Subsystem (TAS), Site Support Subsystem (SSS).

c. Full Service LAN A (FS LAN A), Emergency Service LAN A (ES LAN A).

d. Enhanced Traffic Management System (ETMS), Real Time Quality Control (RTQC).

b. Terminal Automation Subsystem (TAS), Site Support Subsystem (SSS).

10) What workstation provides status monitoring, system control, and establishes the computerhuman interface (CHI)?

a. Monitor and Control Workstation (MCW).

b. Terminal Controller Workstation (TCW).

c. General Purpose Workstation (GPW).

d. Tower Display Workstation (TDW).

a. Monitor and Control Workstation (MCW).

(410) What Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System (STARS) service level provides

a reliable, minimal function, air traffic control functionality in the event the STARS primary

service level is unavailable?

a. Full Service Level (FSL).

b. Self Service Level (SSL).

c. Support Service Level (SSL).

d. Emergency Service Level (ESL).

d. Emergency Service Level (ESL).

(410) What Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System Operational Site (SOS)

subsystem provides software support for the site and site-to-site data communication for software

distribution?

a. Site Support Subsystem (SSS).

b. Real Time Quality Control (RTQC).

c. Terminal Automation Subsystem (TAS).

d. Enhanced Traffic Management System (ETMS).

a. Site Support Subsystem (SSS).

(410) What Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System Operational Site (SOS)

subsystem has a server that retains and distributes software for a site?

a. Enhanced Traffic Management System (ETMS).

b. Terminal Automation Subsystem (TAS).

c. Real Time Quality Control (RTQC).

d. Site Support Subsystem (SSS).

d. Site Support Subsystem (SSS).

(411) The Monitor and Control Workstation (MCW) SYS 1 processor is capable of accessing

which local area networks (LAN)?

a. Support Service Level (SSL) LAN A only.

b. Full Service (FS) LAN A only.

c. SSL LAN A and SSL LAN B.

d. FS LAN A and FS LAN B.

d. FS LAN A and FS LAN B.

(411) What provides the Monitor and Control Workstation (MCW) operator with an X-Windows

terminal displayed at the MCW?

a. Control and monitor display (CMD) computer software configuration item (CSCI).

b. System monitor control (SMC) internal solid state software.

c. CMD adapted thresholds.

d. SMC adapted thresholds.

a. Control and monitor display (CMD) computer software configuration item (CSCI).

(411) If the System Monitor Control (SMC) manager fails to receive the periodic "heartbeats"

from the SMC agents, what has happened?

a. It needs to be power-cycled.

b. The X-Windows software needs to be updated.

c. The non-reporting subsystem has failed catastrophically.

d. The non-reporting subsystem has failed to connect to the remote tower beacon code blocks.

c. The non-reporting subsystem has failed catastrophically.

(411) Which Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System (STARS) workstation is the

"Radar Scope" that permits an operator to track aircraft and provide directions to pilots of aircraft

entering, flying within, and exiting the terminal area?

a. Monitor and Control Workstation (MCW).

b. Terminal Controller Workstation (TCW).

c. General Purpose Workstation (GPW).

d. Tower Duty Workstation (TDW).

b. Terminal Controller Workstation (TCW).

(411) You normally see the Terminal Controller Workstation (TCW) located in the

a. remote tower cab.

b. maintenance support room.

c. Radar Approach Control (RAPCON) facility.

d. Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System (STARS) Enhanced Local Integrated

Tower Equipment (ELITE) equipment rack.

c. Radar Approach Control (RAPCON) facility.

(411) How many terminal display workstations (TDW) can the local tower local area network

(LAN) switch support by 1000TBX connections?

a. 16.

b. 20.

c. 26.

d. 30.

a. 16.

(411) Where is the terminal display workstation (TDW) monitor's brightness controlled?

a. Remote bright control box.

b. Local brightness auxiliary port.

c. Remote brightness auxiliary port.

d. At the contrast/brightness control panel on the front of the Data Entry Controller (DEC).

a. Remote bright control box.

(411) What is the major difference between the local terminal display workstation (LTDW) and

the remote terminal display workstation (RTDW)?

a. The LTDW requires 220 volts AC to operate.

b. The RTDW requires 220 volts AC to operate.

c. The RTDW requires a Layer 3 switch that can function as a router.

d. The RTDW requires four coaxial cables (RED, GREEN, BLUE, AUX) for video signals.

c. The RTDW requires a Layer 3 switch that can function as a router.

(412) What is the storage capability for the site support subsystem (SSS) digital audio tapes

(DAT)?

a. 6 gigabyte (GB) (native) or 12 GB (compressed) per tape.

b. 12 GB (native) or 24 GB (compressed) per tape.

c. 18 GB (native) or 36 GB (compressed) per tape.

d. 36 GB (native) or 72 GB (compressed) per tape.

d. 36 GB (native) or 72 GB (compressed) per tape.

(412) What site support subsystem (SSS) device maintains a replica of all application specific and

commercially available software required for restoration of any system processor?

a. Event engine.

b. Digital audio tapes (DAT).

c. LAN (local area network) router.

d. Toolhost site support subsystem (SSS) external hard drive

d. Toolhost site support subsystem (SSS) external hard drive

(412) What site support subsystem (SSS) system works in conjunction with the automation

subsystem to provide artificially generated radar and inter-facility message data for test,

certification, and training?

a. Testing and Training Simulator Equipment/Simulation (TTSE/SIM).

b. Test and Simulation Training Control Equipment.

c. ATControl software.

d. Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System (STARS) ELITE.

a. Testing and Training Simulator Equipment/Simulation (TTSE/SIM).

(412) As a Testing and Training Simulator Equipment/Simulation (TTSE/SIM) exercise

progresses, what schedules and coordinates scenario events as well as dynamic events such as

aircraft clearances issued by a trainee controller?

a. Event engine.

b. Digital audio tapes (DAT).

c. Local area network (LAN) router.

d. Toolhost site support subsystem (SSS) external hard drive.

a. Event engine.