Pharmacology Practice Final Exam

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Last updated 1:09 AM on 4/20/26
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283 Terms

1
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The letters "prn" appearing on a prescription indicate that a medication is to be administered

when needed

2
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Prescriptions for Schedule III through Schedule V drugs are valid for how long from the date on the prescription form?

six months

3
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All of the following need to be listed in the Medical Alert Box on a health history form EXCEPT?

Age

4
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The government agency responsible for regulating the manufacturing and dispensing of controlled substances is called the ________.

Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)

5
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The Controlled Substances Act of 1970 did all of the following EXCEPT ________.

introduce the word narcotic

6
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Which of the following is registered with the U.S. Patent Office as a registered trademark?

trade name

7
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When written on a prescription, "PO" is an abbreviation for:

by mouth

8
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Tylenol with codeine falls into which DEA schedule of controlled substances?

Schedule III

9
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An example of a Schedule I drug is ________.

lysergic acid diethylamide

10
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A drug that is able to unlock or activate a receptor and produce an effect is known as a/an ________.

agonist

11
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Drugs circulate in the blood bound to ________.

albumin

12
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Enteric-coated tablets ________.

are made to dissolve in the small intestine

13
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Receptors are specifically designed to interact with natural body chemicals. Which of the following is NOT one of those natural body chemicals?

proteins

14
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The first-pass effect describes the ________.

metabolism of drugs by the liver

15
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The process of drug metabolism is accomplished in the ________, the principal organ of metabolism.

liver

16
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Which of the following is NOT one of the steps involved in the drug cycle?

secretion

17
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When the combined action of two drugs is greater than the sum of their individual actions, it is known as

synergy

18
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When an elderly adult is given a prescription, the dose is usually:

Lower than normal

19
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Which of the following does NOT delay the absorption of a drug from its site of injection?

massage of the injection area

20
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Which of the following factors determines the dose of a drug to be administered?

all of the above

21
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A drug's duration is:

the length of time that a drug has an effect

22
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Which organ plays the greatest role in absorption of orally-administered medications?

small intestine

23
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A drug that is able to unlock or activate a receptor and produce an effect is known as a/an ________.

agonist

24
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What best describes the use of increased higher doses to produce the same effect as lower doses used to provide?

tolerance

25
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Which group has an affinity for a receptor, combines with the receptor, but produces no effect?

competitive antagonist

26
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When comparing types of administration (oral vs parenteral), which is TRUE? 

Oral has slower onset

27
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Which organ plays the greatest role in excretion of most medications?

Kidney

28
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What percent of the drug has been dispersed after two half-lives?

75%

29
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How are prodrugs metabolized?

Inactive to inactive

30
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If a client takes a medication that causes a side effect that is completely unexpected or different from any published side effect, the term used to explain this unique side effect is

Drug idiosyncrasy

31
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Drugs with teratogenic effects can produce:

An abnormal fetus

32
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Certain drugs can cause a negative effect on fetal development if taken by a pregnant woman. The term used for this negative effect is:

Teratogenic

33
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What does the therapeutic index indicate?

the margin of safety between the therapeutic and toxic doses

34
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Which of the following cells synthesize antibodies?

plasma

35
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Which is a genetically-related abnormal drug response?

idiosyncratic reaction

36
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Adrenergic receptors include ________.

alpha1, alpha2, beta1, and beta2 receptors

37
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A drug that causes xerostomia is:

an anticholinergic agent

38
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All the following medications have been associated with xerostomia EXCEPT?

pilocarpine

39
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An excess of which of the following hormones can be associated with an increased sensitivity to epinephrine?

thyroid

40
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Which of the following actions is NOT a potential side effect of epinephrine?

bronchospasm

41
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Which of the following is a sympathomimetic drug that can increase blood pressure?

epinephrine

42
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Which of the following actions is not caused by epinephrine?

miosis

43
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Which of the following orally inhaled drugs is used to treat acute asthma attacks?

Albuteral

44
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Which would be best for the treatment of xerostomia?

Pilocarpine

45
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Anticholinergic agents are contraindicated in clients with:

Prostatic hypertrophy

46
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Epinephrine should be restricted for patients with:

Hypertension

47
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When are anticholinergic drugs indicated in dentistry?

Decrease saliva for dry treatment field

48
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Which symptom may occur due to activation of the sympathetic autonomic nervous system? 

Syncope

49
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The cause of death from overdose of any central nervous system depressant is usually?

respiratory depression

50
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All of the following drugs may result in an increased amount of bleeding during scaling and root planing except one.  Which if the EXCEPTION?

acetaminophen

51
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Aspirin has all of the following actions EXCEPT?

obundent

52
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Because she is taking aspirin, Mrs. Smith should be counseled regarding all of the following EXCEPT:

headache

53
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Chronic use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatories may reduce the effectiveness of:

Calcium channel blockers

54
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Ibuprofen (Motrin) is a useful:

nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agent

55
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Mrs. Smith takes one baby aspirin per day to prevent heart attack. She may be at an increased risk for all of the following EXCEPT:

Inflammation

56
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Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs can reduce the pharmacologic effect of:

ACE inhibitors

57
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Which common adverse effect can aspirin produce in the body?

GI side effects

58
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Which analgesic is safest for a patient taking warfarin?

Acetaminophen

59
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Which of the following analgesics raise pain thresholds (meaning, increasing pain tolerance or reducing pain) without impairing alertness or judgement?

salicylates

60
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Which of the following drugs can be substituted for aspirin in a patient with an aspirin allergy?

acetaminophen

61
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Which one of the following drugs has anti-inflammatory, antipyretic, analgesic and anti-platelet actions?

aspirin

62
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Which of the following is MOST likely to cause an increase in bleeding during periodontal debridement?

sulindac (Clinoril)

63
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Which of the following is not an action of aspirin?

obtundent

64
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Which of the following patients would be able to use salicylates?

Patients with rheumotoid arthritis

65
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Which of the following should not be given to a person with a history of aspirin hypersensitivity?

Ibuprofen

66
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Which of the following substances can contribute to a patient's stomach ulcers?

aspirin

67
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Which of the following types of patients would aspirin be an acceptable choice for pain control?

Patients with rheumatoid arthritis

68
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Which medication is contraindicated in young children?

aspirin

69
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Which of the following should not be given to a person with a history of aspirin hypersensitivity?

Ibuprofen

70
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Which one of the following drugs has anti-inflammatory, antipyretic, analgesic and anti-platelet actions?

aspirin

71
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Which of the following analgesics raise pain thresholds (meaning, increasing pain tolerance or reducing pain) without impairing alertness or judgment?

salicylates

72
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Ibuprofen's action as an antipyretic results from its action on the

hypothalamus

73
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Non-opioid analgesics and aspirin reduce inflammation by

Inhibits prostaglandins

74
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Persons who have chronic constipation should be given which of the following drugs with caution?

Codeine

75
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Which of the following is the drug of choice used to treat an opioid overdose?

naloxone

76
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Opioids can be used to manage or treat:

diarrhea, pain, and cough

77
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Which of the following is the MOST effective antitussive medication?

codeine

78
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The most serious side effect of narcotic analgesics is their ability to:

depress respiratory function

79
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Dental patients receiving opioid analgesics for a dental condition should be counseled regarding all of the following EXCEPT?

headaches

80
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If a patient develops tolerance to a drug, that means he:

needs increase in dosage to produce usual effect of drug

81
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Which adverse reaction is commonly associated with opioid analgesics?

sedation

82
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Opioids are contradicted for patients with what condition?

Emphysema

83
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A two-year old boy contracts an infection that requires antibiotic therapy.  With this information alone, which drug below wouldn't you use?

tetracycline

84
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A patient who is allergic to penicillin, may also have an allergic reaction to:

cefalexin

85
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A patient reports that she is six months pregnant. Which of the following drugs, if prescribed for the client, would lead to a specific type of intrinsic tooth staining in the unborn child?

Tetracycline

86
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If a client with asthma is taking theophylline, which of the following durgs may result in toxicity?

erythromycin

87
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Protracted use of sulfa drugs may produce symptoms of vitamin K deficiency because sulfa drugs

inhibit growth of intestinal bacteria

88
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Microbial drug resistance is an example of:

mutation & selection

89
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Which of the following, when taken with antacids, can result in as much as a 50% DECREASE in intestinal absorption of the medication?

tetracycline

90
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Penicillin's mechanism of action:

destroys the bacterial cell wall

91
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What antibiotic concentrates in gingival crevicular fluid?

tetracycline

92
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Which of the following drugs acts upon the anaerobic organisms of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?

metronidazole

93
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Which is the first drug of choice indicated in the treatment of methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureas (MRSA)?

vancomycin

94
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Which is the active ingredient found in Arestin?

Minocycline

95
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Which antibiotic should not be taken within 2 hours of ingesting dairy products?

Tetracycline

96
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Which antiinfective is prescribed as a subclinical dose to treat periodontal disease?

doxycycline

97
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Which medication is associated with pseudomembranous colitis?

clindamycin

98
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Which of the following should be used for prophylactic antibiotic premedication if the client cannot take oral medications and is NOT allergic to penicillin?

Ampicillin

99
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Which oral side effect is MOST associated with antibiotics?

Black hairy tongue

100
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Tetracycline is a safe analgesic for which type of patient?

Postmenopausal women