Final - Infectious Diseases - Part 1 | Quizlet KM

Which statement is true for vaccination of horse against Equine

Viral Arteritis

a. Vaccines are available in some European countries and USA

b. Vaccines are not used due to serious side effects

c. Many commercial vaccinations are available world wide

d. Effective vaccines are not available

Many commercial vaccinations are available world wide

The vaccines against Herpesvirus infection in horses contain

a. RAC-H antigens

b. EHV-1 and EHV-4 antigens

c. Attenuated EHV-1, EHV-2 and EHV-4 strains

d. Inactivated EHV-1, EHV-3 and EHV-4 strains

EHV-1 and EHV-4 antigens

S. Neurona

a. Causes Borna Disease

b. Causes EPM

c. Transmitted by rats

d. Causes a non progressive disease

Causes EPM (Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis)

Rhodococcus equi in foals is caused by

Rhodococcus equi VapA

In WNV cycle horses are

a. The only host

b. Amplifying hosts

c. Accidental hosts

d. The horses are non susceptible to this

Accidental hosts

Causitive agent of contagious equine metritis

(CEM)

a. Taylorella asinigenitalis

b. Taylorella Equigenitalis

c. Burkholderia Mallei

d. Trypanasoma equiperdum

Taylorella Equigenitalis

The mainstays of rhodococcsus treatment is

a. Antibiotic therapy with rifampicin and macrolides

b. Antibiotic therapy according to antibiogram

c. Only supportive care

d. Antiviral drugs

Antibiotic therapy with rifampicin and

macrolides

Pulmonary, cardiac and mixed form are distinguished in

a. EHV infections

B. EIA infectious

c. African horse sickness

d. Strangles

African horse sickness

African horse sickness control

a. Vaccination

b. Movement restrictions

c. Reduce exposure to biting insects

d. All of above

All of above (a. Vaccination

b. Movement restrictions

c. Reduce exposure to biting insects)

VEE, WEE, EEE belong to

a. Flavivirus

b. Togaviridae

c. Rhabdoviridae

d. Arteriviridae

Togaviridae

Diagnosis of rhodococcus equi in foals is based on

a. Clinical signs and thorax USG

b. Clinical signs only

c. Clinical signs and detection of R. Equi in nasal swab

d. Nasal swab and increased of haematological parameters

PQ says

c. Clinical signs and detection of R. Equi in nasal swab

Zaras note says: Clinical signs and thorax USG, blood

test is gold standard

What are the clinical signs of strangles

a. Fever, cough, serous nasal discharge

b. Ecchymosis, swellings, fever

c. Fever, serous nasal discharge, conjunctivitis, cough

d. Fever, purulent nasal discharge, absessation of the lymph nodes

of the head

Fever, purulent nasal discharge, abcessation of the

lymph nodes of the head

tetanolysin

a. Has an unknown function

b. Is disseminated via neurons

c. Leads to unopposed muscle contraction

d. Is produced by clostridium botulism

Has an unknown function

The most reasonable diagnostic test for EIA

a. Viral isolation

b. AGID or ELISA

c. Western blot

d. PCR

AGID or ELISA -

(agid or coggins test is best)

What is the incubation period for EHV

a) 4-6 days but can be as short as 24 hours

b) 24hours

c) 4 weeks (1 month)

d) 20-28 days

4-6 days but can be as short as 24 hours

Rhodococcosis occurs mostly at the age of

a. 1-3 weeks

b. 3 weeks - 3 years

c. 3 weeks - 12 weeks

d. Any age

3 weeks - 12 weeks

(1-6 months maybe)

The mainstay of Equine infectious anemia control is

a. Vaccinations

b. Antibiotics therapy

c. Isolation and culling of infected animals

d. All of above

Isolation and culling of infected animals

What causes strangles

Streptococcus equi subsp equi

At what stage of pregnancy do abortions due to EHV-1 infection

occur most often

a. Late pregnancy, 3rd trimester

b. 3-10 months

c. For the whole pregnancy

d. Any time up to 4 weeks after pregnant mares infection

Late pregnancy, 3rd trimester

Typical clinical signs of equine influenza

a. Cough fever nasal discharge

b. Oedema, pink eye, weakness

C. Dark urine, anemia

d. All answers are correct

Cough fever nasal discharge

Pale, jaundice MM with petechiae and red coloured urine can be

symptoms of

a. Piroplasmosis abd ehrilihiosis

b. Leptospirosis and piroplasmosis

c. Equine infectious anemia

d. All of above

All of the above (a. Piroplasmosis abd ehrilihiosis

b. Leptospirosis and piroplasmosis

c. Equine infectious anemia)

Which statement is true of vaccination of horses against EIA

a. Effective vaccines are available in some EU countries and USA

b. Vaccines are not used due to serious side effects

c. Many commercial vaccines are available world wide

d. Effective vaccines are not available

Effective vaccines are not available

Neurological disorders in EIA derive from

a. Vasculitis in CNS

b. Hypoglycaemia

c. Brain infections

d. Ag-ab complexes in spinal cord

Vasculitis in CNS

Strangles affect horses

a. Naive at any age

b. Immune compromised

c. Secondary to viral infections

d. 3 weeks - 12 weeks old

Naive at any age ( but more common in young horses)

Clinical signs of tetanus

a. Ridgitiy of muscles, profuse sweating and dysphagia

b. Tachycardia and hyperthermia

c. recumbancy

d. All answers

All answers (a. Ridgitiy of muscles, profuse sweating and dysphagia

b. Tachycardia and hyperthermia

c. recumbancy)

Routes of transmission of equine viral arteritis

a. Mosquitos

b. Airborne and matting

c. Blood products

d. All answers

Airborne and matting

Equine protozoal myoencephalitis occurs

a. World wide

b. Only in North America

c. Only in Africa

d. Only in Europe

Only in North America

Equine viral respiratory tract infections diseases known as equine

respiratory diagnostic panel include

a. EIV, EVA, EHV-1, EHV-4

B. WNV, EIV, EVA, EHV-1

C. EIA, EIV, EVA, EHV-1

D. EIA, WNE, WEE, EHV-4

A) EIV, EVA, EHV-1, EHV-4

The vaccine against tetanus contains

a. Inactivated toxin of clostridium tetani

b. M protein

c. C reactive protein

d. Inactivated strains of clostridium tetani

Inactivated toxin of clostridium tetani

Susceptible to African Horse sickness are

a. Equine and humans

b. Equine and dogs

c. Only horses

d. Equidae and ruminants

Equine and dogs

Gross lesions which may be observed in fetus aborted due to

EHV-1 infection

a. Multiple petechia, jaundice, multifocal hepatic necrosis, yellow

fluid inn the body cavities

b. Tissue autolysis, abscesses in the liver

c. Placentitis, necrotic lesions and mucus exudate on fetus

D. All answers

Multiple petechia, jaundice, multifocal hepatic necrosis, yellow fluid inn the body cavities

Recommended "core" vaccines in horses in Europe are

a. Tetanus, rabies, eventually WNV flus rhinopnumonitis and influenza

b. Tetanus, rabies, WNV, VEE

c. Botulism, rhinopneumonitis, influenza

d. EVA, EIA, AHS

a. Tetanus, rabies, eventually WNV flus rhinopnumonitis and

influenza

Burkholderia mallei infection occurs

a. Worldwide with similar occurrence

b. Only in North America

c. only in Europe

d. Mostly in Middle East

Mostly in Middle East

Susceptible to Equine Viral arteritis are

a. Only equidae

b. equidae and dogs

c. equidae and felids

d. equidae and humans

Only equidae

Which of the below occur in clostridial infections most frequently

a. Tetanus and botulism

b. Diarrhoea and colic

c. Neurological symptoms

d. Skin lesions

Diarrhoea and colic

AHS

a. Is contagious but not infectious

b. Is infectious but not contagious

c. Is transmitted by ticks only

d. Is endemic in USA

Is infectious but not contagious

(transmitted by culicoides midges, nit ticks)

Equine infectious diseases which are called equine encephalitis

a. WNV, Japanese encephalitis, potomac fever

b. Western equine encephalitis, Eastern equine encephalitis,

Venezuelan equine encephalitis

c. Borna disease, tick born encephalitis, West Nile fever

d. All answers

Western equine encephalitis, Eastern equine encephalitis,

Venezuelan equine encephalitis

Mortality in AHS

a. Less than 10% due to world wide vaccine programmes

b. Varies between 30-60%

c. Is the biggest in African zebras

d. Is over 50% even up to 95%

Is over 50% even up to 95%

Diarrhoea caused by rotavirus occurs in

a. Foals in first weeks - months of life

b. In all horses regardless of their age

c. In foals at weaning

d. In foals during mares estrus

Foals in first weeks - months of life

Which statement is true for vaccination of horses against African horse sickness?

a. Effective inactivated vaccine is available in some countries

b. Vaccines are not used due to their serious side effects

c. Many commercial vaccines are available world wide

d. Effective vaccines are not available

A. Effective inactivated vaccine is available in some countries

maybe C???

(From lecture - Live attenuated vaccines are commonly available and widely

used in epidemic countries

but they are NOT ALLOWED in many free countries)

(Also from lecture - It is an active vaccine)

Detection of African horse sickness (AHS)

A)virus isolation using whole blood

B)spleen, lung, lymph node samples from recently dead animals

C) ELISA

D) Virus neutralisation VN

E) RT-PCR

F) all

All of the above (

a. virus isolation using whole blood

b. spleen, lung, lymph node samples from recently dead animals

c. ELISA

d. Virus neutralisation VN

e. RT-PCR)

At which stage of pregnancy abortion due to equine viral arteritis

A. Third trimester

b. Early pregnancy - first trimester

c. For the whole pregnancy

d. any time, up to four weeks after pregnant mare's infection

any time, up to four weeks after pregnant mare's infection

(the abortion happens 10-30 days after the mare gets infected and usually happens in the 3rd-10th month of pregnancy

Most common CEM clinical manifestation in mares and stallions are:

a. Vaginal discharge in mares and the absence of clinical symptoms in stallions

b. The absence of clinical symptoms in mares and muco-purulent discharge

from foreskin (praeputium)

c. Respiratory symptoms and discharges from vagina and foreskin (praeputium)

in mares and stallions

d. Abortions in mares and respiratory symptoms in stallions

Vaginal discharge in mares and the absence of clinical symptoms in

stallions

Which of the vector-borne diseases in horses may cause abortions?

a. Anaplasmosis

b. Potomac Horse Fever

c. Teilorella equigenitalis infection

d. Arteritis

Arteritis??

Anaplasmosis - i think

(dont think EVA is vector borne but it does cause abortions)

Which of the abortive diseases may be prevented by vaccination of

mares?

a. EHV2

b. EHV5

c. EHV1

d. EHV4

EHV-1

CEM is suspected in mares. Enter the place from where mares are

sampled?

a. Clitoral fossa and disthal urethra

b. Clitoral fossa and fossa glandis

c. Urethral sinus and clitoral sinuses

d. Clitoral fossa and clitoral sinuses

Clitoral fossa and clitoral sinuses

CEM is suspected in stallion. Enter the place from where stallions

are sampled?

a. Clitoral fossa and disthal urethra

b. Clitoral fossa and fossa glandis

c. Urethral sinus and fossa glandis

d. Clitoral fossa and clitoral sinuses

Urethral sinus and fossa glandis

Peripheral blood smear showed morulae within monocytes, which

are characteristic for:

a. Anaplasma phagocytophilum infection

b. Neorickettsia risticii infection

c. WNF

d. Borna disease

Anaplasma phagocytophilum infection

Synonymous of Neorickettsia risticci infection in horses is:

a. Potomac Horse Fever

b. Shipping Fever

c. African Horse Sickness

d. Contagious Equine Metritis

Potomac Horse Fever

Anaplasma phagocytophilum morulae will be detected in:

a. Neutrophils

b. Monocytes

c. Platelets

d. Erythrocytes

PQ says Neutrophils??

maybe its Monocytes

Previous question says morulae within monocytes is charachteristic for Anaplasma phagocytophilum

Which test/ tests are recommended by OIE for serological diagnosis of AHS?

a. RT-PCR and ELISA

b. iIF and ELISA

c. CFT and ELISA

d. ELISA only

RT-PCR and ELISA

A first-line treatment for horses with rickettsial disease is/are:

a. Tetracyclines

b. Penicillin

c. Macrolides

d. Aminoglycosides

Tetracyclines

Which lab test is recommended for arteritis

a. CFT

B. PCR

C. SN

D. IF

SN

(seroneutralization) is ment to be gold standard for EVA, but PCR is good for carriers

What disease is notifiable to EU

a. Equine encephalitis of all types

b. WEE only

c. WEE and VEE only

d. WEE and EEE only

Equine encephalitis of all types

What countries are endemic for borna disease in Europe

a. Germany,Switzerland,Lichtenstein

b. Germany,France,UK

c. Germany, Austria, Italy and Greece

d. Germany,Poland,Czech republic and Slovakia

Germany,Switzerland,Lichtenstein????

(apparently hasnt been reported in lichtenstein , maybe D)

Clinical manifestation described as slow-motion eating

and "pipe smoking" are characteristic for:

a. WNF

b. EEE

c. BD

d. Rabies

BD (Borna Disease)

occular manifestation of leptospirosis

Recurrent uveitis

Treatment of rhodococcus in foals should be started

a. after confirming the presence of R.equi In the PCR method using a

nasal swab

b. After detecting purulent lesions on the lungs, perform a USG

examination and at the same time detect symptoms

c. As a preventative measure for each female at the age of 4-6 weeks

d. After receiving a positive SNAP test

B. After detecting purulent lesions on the lungs, perform a USG examination and at the same time detect symptoms

In the treatment of rhodococcus it is necessary to use:

a. Immune serum

b. Antibodies macrocodes and rifamycin

c. Antibiotics after an antibiogram

d. Only supportive treatment without antibiotics

Antibiotics after an antibiogram

The so called lame foal

a. sepsis in the first few days of life

b. Any foal with lameness symptoms

c. bacterial arthritis in foals

d. orthropediac problem in premature foals

sepsis in the first few days of life

diagnosis of EIA

a. AGID test which detects the antigen

b. ELISA test which detects antibodies

c. AGID test which detects antibodies

d. ELISA test which detects the antigen

AGID test which detects antibodies

EIA virus is mainly she

through

a. Urine

b. Semen

c. Blood

Blood

Salmonella symptoms in horse

a. Diarrhea and abortion in pregnant mares

b. Neurological disorders

c. Ocular symptoms

d. Respiratorysymptoms

Diarrhea and abortion in pregnant mares

Tetanus treatment

A. Antimicrobial likw penicillin and serum

B. Drugs that allows sedation and myorelaxation

c. Antimicrobials like penicillins, myorelaxants and serum and drugs

that allow sedation

D. Serum and drugs that allows sedation and myorelaxation

C. Antimicrobials like penicillins, myorelaxants and serum and drugs

that allow sedation

Clinical manifestation of Botulism in horses correlate with:

a. Action of bacteria in CNS

b. Action of neurotoxin in CNS

c. Action of spores in CNS

d. Action of bacteria,spores and neurotoxins in CNS

Action of neurotoxin in CNS

Rhodococcus infection may be associated with:

a. Pulmonary disease only

b. Pulmonary or abdominal disease

c. Pulmonary and abdominal disease

d. Bone or joint disease only

Pulmonary or abdominal disease

Diagnosis of anaplasmosis

whole blood

Glanders incubation time

2 weeks to 3 months

Rotavirus in foals (what group)

Rotavirus group A

Cause of Dourine (covering sickness)

Trypanosome equiperdum

(the best serological test for diagnosis is CFT)

Best serological test for diagnosis of Dourine is

CFT

Which places may involve extrapulmonary form of Rhodococcus

- All answers are correct

- Gastrointestinal tract and peritoneum

- Bones and eyes

- Joints

All answers are correct (a. Gastrointestinal tract and peritoneum

b. Bones and eyes

c. Joints)

Abbreviation for arteritis in horses

a. EVA

b. EAV

C. EIA

D. EIAV

EVA

Purpura hemorrhagica is

- A form of streptococcus equi subsp. Equi infection

- Type I of hypersensitivity after rhodococcus

- Type II of hypersensitivity

- Type III of immune-mediated hypersensitivity (vasculitis)

Type III of immune-mediated hypersensitivity

(vasculitis)

(Purpura hemorrhagica is an acute, immune-mediated, necrotizing vasculitis (type III

hypersensitivity) associated with sensitization and cross-reactivity to proteins in the

cell wall of Streptococcus equi subsp equi.)

Which way should TAT in horses with tetanus be administered

a. SC or IM

b. SC, IM or IV

c. IM only

d. SC only

SC, IM or IV

Prevention of CEM with vaccination covers:

a. Pregnant mares only

b. Stallions before mating

c. Foals starting at 6 months of age, every six months

d. There are no CEM vaccines

There are no CEM vaccines

About 80% of horses with Potomac Horse Fever show:

a. Diarrhea

b. Limb oedema

c. Neurological disorders

d. Nasal and ocular discharge

Diarrhea

(maybe Fever if thats an option as it would be most common)

Which region is endemic for AHS?

a. North part of Africa and south part of Europe

b. The whole of Africa

c. Disease has a global distribution

d. South parts of Africa

South parts of Africa - sub Sahara

The main vector of AHS is:

a. North part of Africa and south part of Europe

b. The whole of Africa

c. Disease has a global distribution

d. South parts of Africa

Mosquito (Culicoides spp.)

How long does viremia of AHS last in horses

a. 4-8 days

b. 4-8 weeks

c. < 4 days

d. 2-4 months

4-8 days

In what form of AHS is the mortality highest

a) subclinicnal form

b) cardiac form

c) pulmonary form

d) mixed form

pulmonary form - nearly always fatal

(subclinical - rarely causes death,

Cardiac - 50%+ chance,

Pulmonary - nearly always fatal,

Mixed - 70-80%)

What form of AHS are horses most susceptible to

a) cardiac and mixed

b) pulmonary only

c) pulmonary and mixed

d) cardiac only

pulmonary and mixed

WEE, EEE and VEE occurs in the:

a. Western hemisphere

b. Eastern hemisphere

Western hemisphere

Is immunity acquired after having AHS

a) no immunity is developed

b) good immunity is developed but only to the infecting serotype

c) good immunity is developed to the infecting serotype and

partial immunity to other serotypes

d) good immunity developed for both the the infecting and other

serotypes

good immunity is developed to the infecting serotype and partial immunity to other serotypes

Which most typical post mortem changes can be observed in equine

leptospirosis:

a. Splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, renal interstitial edema

b. Hepatomegaly, vessel thrombocytosis, myonecrosis

c. Lymphadenopathy, glomerulonephritis, splenomegaly

d.Renal interstitial edema,hemorrhages,glomerulonephritis

Renal interstitial oedema, hemorrhages,

glomerulonephritis

Lesions in dermatophytosis are almost always localized:

a. Of the entire body surface of affected horses

b. In saddle area of riding horses

c. In saddle and girth area of all horses

d. On the head, limbs and neck

On the head, limbs and neck

Vaccine against dermatophytosis in horses is used in following

program:

a. In the same dose for treatment as for prophylactic purpose

b. In double dose for treatment and single dose for prophylactic

purpose

c. Every month in the case of clinical lesions, until recovery

d. Every two weeks in the case of clinical lesions and being

administered for 2-3 months

In double dose for treatment and single dose for prophylactic purpose

Superficial mycoses in horses are usually caused by:

a. Dermatophytes and Yeasts from the genus Malassezia

b. Yeasts from the genus Malassezia only

c. Dermatophytes only

d. Aspergillusspp.

Dermatophytes and Yeasts from the genus Malassezia

Characteristic change in the morphology of peripheral blood, that could be detected in all stages of Equine Infectious Anaemia and will be present in early stages is:

a. Thrombocytopenia

b. Hipoalbuminemia

c. Hypergammaglobulinemia

d. Icterus

Thrombocytopenia

The time from wound inoculation by C. tetani to development of first clinical signs can range:

a. From 1-7days

b. From 3-6months

c. From 1-60 days

d. From months to years

From 1-60 days

(usually 7-14 days)

What kind of symptoms correlate with tetanus in horses?

a. Diarrhea, increased tonus of masticatory muscles and neck stiffness

b. Prolapse of the tongue and nictitans, hyperthermia and muscle spasm

c. Extended position head and neck, elevation of the tailhead and flaccid

paralysis of the anus

d. Prolapse of nictitans, muscle spams, extensor rigory, elevation of the

tailhead and spasticparalysis of the anus

Prolapse of nictitans, muscle spams, extensor rigory, elevation of the tailhead and spastic paralysis of the anus

When is a foal coming from non-vaccinated mares be vaccinated

2-3 months

Rapid spread (24-48h) of an acute, febrile respiratory disease characterised by a dry, hacking cough and nasal discharge suggest:

a. Arteritis

b. Herpes virus infection

c. Influenza

d. Purpura haemorrhagica

Influenza

The principal infectious agents associated with colitis in horses include:

a. Herpesvirus, Salmonellaspp. And Clostridium botulinum

b. Clostridium botulinum, perfringens and difficile

c. Salmonella spp., Leptospirosis and Strangles

d. Neorickettsia risticii, Salmonellaspp.,Clostridium perfringens and

difficile

D. Neorickettsia risticii, Salmonella spp.,

Clostridium perfringens and difficile

What is the cause of coital exanthema (a veneral disease)

EHV type 3

Predominant lesions in Mycobacterial infection of horses

are:

a. Non-specific, in reproductive tract

b. Respiratory and enteric

c. Renal and mesenteric

d. Skin

Respiratory and enteric

The main etiological agent of horse

mycobacteriosis is:

a. Aspergillus spp.

b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

c. Mycobacterium avium subsp. Avium

d. Mycobacterium lepreae

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Equine brucellosis is mainly caused by:

a. There are no reports of natural brucellosis in

horses

b. Brucella suis and Brucella abortus

c. Brucella canis due to the close contact with dogs

d. Brucella melitensis

Brucella suis and Brucella abortus

Confirmation of Rhodococcus equi infection based on:

a. Clinical manifestation, culture or PCR

b. Clinical manifestation and CFT test

c. Clinical manifestation only

d. Clinical manifestation and detection of morulae in blood

smears

Clinical manifestation, culture or PCR

Clinical manifestations of dourine

disease

Local edema of the genitalia and mammary glands. Segmentation of

the genital area