Anatomy and Physiology Practice Flashcards

Detailed vocabulary flashcards based on anatomical diagrams of motor neurons, synapses, respiratory structures, stomach, large intestine, lymph nodes, and the urinary system.

what is the corpus callosum

the largest bundle of white matter in the brain, containing over 200 million axons that act as a bridge connecting the left and right cerebral hemispheres

the function of cerebellum

Connect sensory and motor neurons and play a role in the reflex arc by allowing for a quicker response without the need of the brain

the function of the interneuron

the most adbundant neurons in the CNS, functions primarily as a ¨middleman¨ that process,' intergrate, and relay singals between sensory and motor neurons.

what are ganglia

clusters of neuron cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system that act as relay stations, connecting different parts of the nervous system

the events, in order, of a nerve impulse

1. Resting Potential (polarized state)

2. Stimulus recieved (threshold reached)

3. Depolarization (Na+ enters)

4. Action potential propagation (signal travels)

5. Repolarization (K+ exits)

6. Refractory period (reset)

7. Synaptic transmission (signal transfer)

what is a neurotransmitter

are endogenous chemical messangers that allow neurons to communicate with each other, muscles, or glands throughout the body. carrying signals across the synaptic cleft, to trasmit information essential for functions like movement, emotions, and breathing.

what part of the brain is responsible for speech

Broca's Area in the frontal lobe; has motor component of speech and lets you say words

the function of the hypothalamus

regulates body temp., hunger, thirst, sleep, hormones and helps maintain the body's internal balance.

the function of the medulla oblongata

controls involuntary activities such as breathing, heart rate, blood pressure, swallowing, and digestion.

the order/ sequence of nerves as they exit the spinal cord

Cervical, Thoracic , Lumbar , Sacral , and Coccygeal

what hormone controls the rate of erythrocyte production

Erythropoietin

what protein coagulates to form a clot

fibrin

what is agglutination

the clumping of cells/particles - usually triggered by an antigen-antibody reaction. This is most common in red blood cells, foreign particles, or bacteria.

the prevalence, in order, of all leukocytes (monkey pneumonic)

The order is -

1. Neutrophils

2. Lymphocytes

3. Monocytes

4. Eosinocytes

5. Basophils.

Never Let Monkeys Eat Bananas.

why applying sterile gauze helps a cut

Sterile gauze can help a cut because it protects the wound and helps hemostasis occur. Applying pressure will reduce bleeding and promote clot formation.

what is coagulation

The process where blood changes from a liquid to a gel-like, solid mass to stop bleeding. It uses fibrin strands to create a clot. It is the body's natural mechanism for sealing damaged blood vessels, creating a "plug" or scab to prevent excessive blood loss.

what organ synthesizes clotting factors

The liver is the synthesis and secretion of blood coagulation factors.

blood typing/ transfusion rules

Type A means one or both are A antigens and blood can be transfused to Type A and Type AB and can receive blood from Type O and Type A. Type B means one or both are B antigens and blood can be transfused to Type B and Type AB and can receive blood from Type O and Type A. Type AB means that there are both A and B antigens and blood can be transfused to AB but can receive blood from Type A, Type B, Type AB, and Type O. Type O means that there are no antigens and blood can be transfused to Type A, Type B, Type AB, and Type O, but can only receive from Type O.

what is hemolysis

the destruction of red blood cells through lysis which is the breakdown of a cell membrane.

what serum is used to prevent sensitization to Rh antigens

the serum used is called RhoGAM it works by activley binding to fetal rh positive rbc that enter an rh negative mothers blood stream preventing the mothers immune system from mounting an antibody response

what is systemic circulation

the part of the cardiovascular system that carries oxygenated blood, nutrients, and hormones from the left ventricle of the heart to all body tissues and organs, returning deoxygenated blood back to the right atrium

what vessel nourishes the myocardium with oxygenated blood

the coronary arteries provide the myocardium with oxygenated blood

what is the SA node

The sinoatrial node is located in the right atrium and is known as the pacemaker of the heart as it starts each heartbeat and sends electrical impulses to continue the contraction.

what structures (in veins) prevent backflow

Venous valves prevent backflow in veins.

the function of the superior and inferior vena cavae

They carry deoxygenated blood from the body back to the right side of the heart.

What vessel drains the digestive organs of blood for transport to the liver?

hepatic portal vein

The relationship between blood pressure/osmotic pressure and fluids at the capillary bed.

Blood pressure forces fluid out of capillaries at the arterial end into tissues, while osmotic pressure draws fluid back into capillaries at the venous end, enabling exchange of substances between blood and tissues.

The path of an impulse via the intrinsic conduction system of the heart. 

The electrical impulse travels starting at the sinoatrial (SA) node, traveling through the atrioventricular (AV) node, bundle of His, bundle branches, and finally the Purkinje fibers. This process dictates the heart's rhythm (60–100 beats per minute) and causes organized muscle contraction.

What do “lub” and “dup” represent?

“Lub” is the sound when heart valves between the atria and ventricles close. “Dup” is the sound heard when the valves at the exits of the heart (the semilunar valves—the aortic and pulmonary valves) close, marking the end of ventricular contraction and the beginning of ventricular relaxation.

 Layers of a typical blood vessel- in order

deep to superficial: the inner tunica intima (endothelium), middle tunica media (smooth muscle/elastic fibers), and outer tunica externa (connective tissue)

The serous membrane layers of the lungs.

The lungs are covered by a serous membrane called the pleura, which has two layers: the visceral pleura, which directly covers the surface of the lungs, and the parietal pleura, which lines the inside of the chest wall. Between these layers is the pleural cavity, which contains a small amount of fluid that reduces friction and allows the lungs to move smoothly during breathing.

What comprises the respiratory zone?

The respiratory zone corresponds to the lung parenchyma and includes the respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, and alveoli.

What is external respiration?

It’s the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the lungs and the blood

What is formed when carbon dioxide is dissolved in water?

carbonic acid

What brain structures control respiratory and breathing rates?

medulla oblongata and the pons

What is the pathway for airflow through the respiratory system?

The pathway for air entering the body during inhalation is: Nose/Mouth-- Pharynx -- Larynx --Trachea --Bronchi --Bronchioles -- Alveoli

How are oxygen and carbon dioxide exchanged through the respiratory membrane?

They move across the membrane by diffusion. Oxygen goes into the blood, and carbon dioxide leaves the blood in the lungs.

What lipid molecule is critical to lung function at the alveolar surfaces?

Pulmonary surfactant. It is made mostly of phospholipids and reduces surface tension in the alveoli so they do not collapse during exhalation.

What is a collapsed lung?

A collapsed lung is atelectasis, which means the alveoli or part of the lung collapse and are not properly filled with air. It can happen when surfactant is lacking or when airways are blocked.

How is carbon dioxide most often transported in blood plasma?

Most carbon dioxide is transported as bicarbonate ions, HCO₃⁻, in the plasma.

What effect does hydrochloric acid have on pepsinogen?

Hydrochloric acid activates pepsinogen by converting it into pepsin. Pepsin then digests proteins in the stomach.

What designates the proximal and distal ends of the small intestine?

The proximal end is the duodenum, attached to the stomach, while the distal end is the ileum

The functions of the small intestine. 

The small intestine is the primary site for digestion and nutrient absorption, transforming chyme (liquid food) into absorbable nutrients and water. Measuring about 20 feet long, it breaks down proteins, fats, and carbohydrates using enzymes and bile, absorbing nutrients into the bloodstream through specialized villi, while also playing an immune defense role.

The purpose of mastication?

It enhances nutrient absorption, stimulates saliva, aids in digestion, and reduces choking risk

What process moves food along the digestive tract?

peristalsis

What primarily controls digestion?

the vagus nerve of the parasympathetic nervous system

What are the constituents of pancreatic juice?

water, electrolytes, digestive enzymes, proteins, lipase/fats, amalayse/carbohydrates, nucleases

What is the function of Peyer’s patches?

used as the primary defense and sensor is the small instenine to prevent intestinal pathogens from forming

What is the importance of the Intrinsic factor?

instrinsic factor is a key protien in Vitamin B12 absorption

What are rugae?

folds inside the stomach that flatten when needed to increase the stomach volume.

What is complement fixation?

an immunological process where serum complement proteins bind to an antigen-antibody complex

What is the function of the spleen?

acts as a filter for our blood to remove old blood cells and detect pathogens that may have entered the body.

What is the body’s first line of defense?

the innate immune system

What are interferons?

signaling proteins, cytokines, produced by the immune system in response to pathogens, primarily viruses, and foreign stimuli. They act as a defense mechanism by signaling neighboring cells to activate antiviral mechanisms, effectively "interfering" with viral replication and modulating the immune system to fight infections

What is an antigen?

a marker that causes the immune system to produce antibodies to fight bacteria, toxins, viruses, or pollen

What is another name for Killer T cells? 

cytotoxic T cells or cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs)

The function of the adaptive defense system.

it serves as the body's specific third line of defense to target particular pathogens, such as bacteria, viruses, and toxins that have invaded the innate immune system; creates memory cells to fight the same pathogens faster

How humoral immunity is provided

by the adaptive immune system through B lymphocytes (B cells) producing antibodies in bodily fluids (serum/lymph), targeting extracellular pathogens.

How plasma cells assist with humoral immunity.

function as the body's primary antibody factories they produce and secrete large quantities of specific antibodies up to thousands per second which circulate in the bloodstream to neutralize pathogens marking them for destruction.

What results from a foreign blood type transfusion? 

Acute Hemolytic Transfusion, causes immune system to attack all RBC, potentially leads to kidney failure, shock, or death.

The functional unit of the kidney.

the nephron

Where is filtrate captured when first filtered? 

In the glomerular capsule, also commonly known as Bowman's capsule.

What is found in filtrate? 

Urea, creatine, glucose, amino acids, electrolytes, and vitamins are all found in filtrate.

What is the trigone?

the triangular region of the bladder formed by the two ureteric orifices and the internal urethral orifice

The two urethral sphincters and their functions

the release of urine is controlled by the internal and external sphincters. The internal sphincter is a layer of smooth muscle that encircles the urethra where it exits the bladder. The enternal sphincter is a ring of skeletal muscle that surrounds the intermediate part of the urethra where it passes through the urogential diaphram.

What mechanism makes us want to drink water?

osmoreceptors, which are cells in the hypothalamus, cause a dry mouth from changes in the blood composition which reinforces a dry mouth

What cells in the hypothalamus react to changes in blood composition to release ADH?

Osmoreceptors are cells in the hypothalamus that react to changes in the blood composition and triggers the release of ADH.

How the kidneys use the buffer system and buffer molecules to control pH. 

The kidneys control pH by reabsorbing bicarbonate ions, secreating hydrogen ions, and using the buffer systems to keep blood from becoming to acidic or basic.

What is the capillary bed surrounding the renal tubule?

The capillary bed surrounding the renal tubule is called the pertubular capillaries.

All of the sections of the renal tubule. 

Renal tubules consist of four parts that include the proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule, and collecting duct.

 What is the role of angiotensin II in blood pressure regulation?

it is designed to raise blood pressure (BP) and increase blood volume

 Why the urinary bladder is able to expand as it fills. 

due to the flexible structure of its tissue layers, specifically the transitional epithelium lining, the rugae (folds) in the wall that flatten out, and the elastic properties of the detrusor muscle.

What is the renal hilum?

Medial indentation where structures enter or exit the kidney (ureters, renal blood vessels, and nerves)

What extension of the aorta brings blood into the kidneys?

Renal Arteries

What are the two functions of the male urethra?

1. Transporting urine from the bladder out of the body

2. Carries sperm

What system do water-soluble hormones use to activate target cells?

Small, spherical bodies within the lymph node cortex that are sites of B-cell localization.

What is the body’s major metabolic hormone? 

A transparent fibrous layer that adheres to the outer surface of the kidney, providing a barrier to infection.

Why is iodine important to the diet?

The light-colored, outer superficial region of the kidney with a granular appearance.

What enzyme do the kidneys release to stimulate the release of aldosterone?

The deep region of the kidney, located internal to the cortex, characterized by cone-shaped tissue masses.

Which hormone decreases blood glucose levels?

Triangular tissue masses in the renal medulla that appear striped due to the presence of collecting ducts.

 What endocrine gland has a close relationship with the hypothalamus?

Inward extensions of cortical tissue that separate the renal pyramids.

What hormone is released as a result of the “fight or flight” response?

The apex or pointed tip of a renal pyramid that points toward the center of the kidney.

How alcohol causes dehydration

A flat, funnel-shaped tube that is continuous with the ureter leaving the hilum.

What are mineralocorticoids and what do they regulate?

Large branching extensions of the renal pelvis that collect urine from the minor calyces.

What are the male sex hormones?

Cup-shaped areas that enclose the papillae of the pyramids and collect urine draining from them.

What is the function of beta and alpha cells?

The internal cavity of the kidney that contains the renal pelvis, calyces, and major blood vessels.

What is the function of melatonin?

The large vessel that supplies the kidney with oxygenated blood for filtration.

What hormone allows T-cells to gain immunocompetency?

The vessel that carries filtered, deoxygenated blood away from the kidney to the inferior vena cava.

What do tropic hormones do?

A smooth, collapsible, muscular sac that stores urine temporarily.

How do releasing/inhibiting hormones of the hypothalamus work?

The thick muscular layer of the bladder wall consisting of intermingled smooth muscle fibers.

What is the function of the testes?

The smooth triangular region of the bladder base outlined by the openings for the ureters and the urethra.

The anatomical location of the prostate.

The two openings through which urine enters the bladder from the ureters.

The function of the prostate. 

Involuntary smooth muscle at the bladder-urethra junction that keeps the urethra closed when urine is not being passed.

What activates sperm and where does it come from?

A thin-walled muscular tube that drains urine from the bladder and conveys it out of the body.

How to trace the pathway of sperm during ejaculation.

Voluntary skeletal muscle surrounding the urethra as it passes through the urogenital diaphragm.

What female reproductive organs produce.

The external opening of the urethra located anterior to the vaginal opening in females.

The function of the fallopian tubes.

The outer layer of fibrous connective tissue covering the urinary bladder.

The function of the endometrium and what happens to it.

A short structure, approximately $3-4\,cm$ long, that serves only the urinary system in females.

The effects of estrogen

The inferior-most portion of the bladder where it narrows into the urethra.

the effects of oxytocin

Folds in the bladder mucosa that disappear as the bladder expands with urine.