Holy Cross College Biology Final Multiple Choice

Question Bank from Exams 1-4

Exam 1 Q1: What effect does methylation have on DNA? A) It allows it to be replicated nearly continuously B) It allows it to be unwound in preparation for protein synthesis C) It makes it transcriptionally inactive D) It activates transcription

C. It makes it transcriptionally inactive — DNA methylation usually silences genes by reducing transcription.

Exam 1 Q2: Which statement correctly describes the role of histone acetylation and DNA methylation in gene regulation? A) DNA methylation reduces transcription, and histone acetylation promotes transcription B) DNA methylation promotes transcription, and histone acetylation reduces transcription C) DNA methylation and histone acetylation both promote transcription D) DNA methylation and histone acetylation both reduce transcription

A. DNA methylation reduces transcription, and histone acetylation promotes transcription — Methylation silences DNA; histone acetylation opens chromatin and increases transcription.

Exam 1 Q3: What is bioinformatics? A) The application of computational methods to the storage and analysis of biological data B) The application of mathematics to biology C) The synthesis of literature in a review manuscript D) The interactions of proteins and cell signaling pathways

A. The application of computational methods to the storage and analysis of biological data — Bioinformatics uses computers to store, compare, and analyze biological sequence data.

Exam 1 Q4: Bioinformatics resources are provided by a number of sources including: A) National Library of Medicine and NIH maintaining NCBI B) European Molecular Biology Laboratory C) BGI in Shenzhen, China D) All of the above

D. All of the above — NCBI, EMBL, and BGI are all examples of bioinformatics resources.

Exam 1 Q5: Software is available that allows online visitors to search GenBank for matches to: A) A predicted protein sequence B) A specific DNA sequence C) Common amino acid stretches and a three-dimensional protein domain model D) All of the above

D. All of the above — GenBank tools can compare DNA sequences, predicted protein sequences, and conserved protein domains.

Exam 1 Q6: Transcription factors in eukaryotes have DNA-binding domains and domains for binding other molecules. In general, which would many bind? A) Repressors B) Protein-based hormones C) Other transcription factors D) tRNA

C. Other transcription factors — Transcription factors often interact with other transcription factors or regulatory proteins.

Exam 1 Q7: Which statement correctly describes the role of general transcription factors in eukaryotes? A) They are required only for specific protein-coding genes B) They bind to other proteins or to a sequence element within the promoter called the TATA box C) They inhibit RNA polymerase binding to the promoter D) They usually lead to high transcription without specific transcription factors

B. They bind to other proteins or to a sequence element within the promoter called the TATA box — General transcription factors help RNA polymerase II assemble at the promoter/TATA box.

Exam 1 Q8: In the _____ approach, DNA from a group of species in an environmental sample is collected and sequenced. A) bioinformatics B) metagenomics C) computer sciences D) proteomics

B. metagenomics — Metagenomics studies DNA collected from many species in an environmental sample.

Exam 1 Q9: In colorectal cancer, several genes must be mutated. Which kinds of genes would you expect to be mutated? A) Genes involved in control of the cell cycle B) Genes coding for digestive enzymes that act in the colon C) Genes especially susceptible to mutation D) BRCA1 and BRCA2

A. Genes involved in control of the cell cycle — Cancer commonly involves mutations in cell-cycle control genes, oncogenes, and tumor suppressors.

Exam 1 Q10: The bicoid gene product is normally localized to the anterior end. If injected into the posterior end too, what would occur? A) The embryo would grow unusually large B) The embryo would grow extra wings and legs C) The embryo would probably show no anterior development and die D) Anterior structures would form on both sides of the embryo

D. Anterior structures would form on both sides of the embryo — Bicoid is an anterior morphogen, so adding it posteriorly can trigger anterior structures there.

Exam 1 Q11: Which statement describes a function of ubiquitin? A) It attaches to proteins marked for destruction in the cell B) It assists in removal of introns from eukaryotic pre-mRNA C) It initiates formation of a transcription complex D) It adds the 3' and 5' caps to eukaryotic pre-mRNA

A. It attaches to proteins marked for destruction in the cell — Ubiquitin tags proteins for degradation by the proteasome.

Exam 1 Q12: BRCA1 and BRCA2 are tumor-suppressor genes. What does this imply about their function? A) They prevent infection by tumor viruses B) Their normal products participate in repair of damaged DNA C) The mutant forms prevent breast cancer D) They block penetration of breast cells by carcinogens

B. Their normal products participate in repair of damaged DNA — Tumor suppressors normally help prevent cancer, often by repairing DNA or stopping the cell cycle.

Exam 1 Q13: Which process can be used to clone animals? A) Use of mitochondrial DNA from adult female cells B) Replication and differentiation of adult stem cells from bone marrow C) Separation of an early blastula into separate cells followed by incubation in a surrogate D) Fusion of an adult cell's nucleus with an enucleated egg followed by incubation in a surrogate

D. Fusion of an adult cell's nucleus with an enucleated egg followed by incubation in a surrogate — Animal cloning uses somatic cell nuclear transfer into an enucleated egg.

Exam 1 Q14: What RNAs knock down a specific gene to determine its function? A) miRNAs B) mRNAs C) siRNAs D) tRNAs

C. siRNAs — siRNAs are used in RNA interference to silence specific target genes.

Exam 1 Q15: Enhancers bind to: A) Activators B) Transcription factors C) Mediator proteins D) RNA polymerase I

A. Activators — Activator proteins bind enhancer DNA and help increase transcription.

Exam 1 Q16: Gene expression may be altered by post-transcriptional processing in eukaryotes. Which statement describes this difference? A) Eukaryotic mRNAs get 5' caps and 3' tails B) Prokaryotic genes are expressed as mRNA more stable in the cell C) Eukaryotic exons may be spliced in alternative patterns D) Prokaryotes use ribosomes of different structure and size

C. Eukaryotic exons may be spliced in alternative patterns — Alternative splicing allows eukaryotic exons to be combined in different ways.

Exam 1 Q17: Which statement correctly describes the role of general transcription factors in eukaryotes? A) They are required only for specific protein-coding genes B) They bind to other proteins or to a sequence element within the promoter called the TATA box C) They inhibit RNA polymerase binding to the promoter D) They usually lead to high transcription without specific transcription factors

B. They bind to other proteins or to a sequence element within the promoter called the TATA box — General transcription factors help form the transcription initiation complex at the promoter.

Exam 1 Q18: RNA interference blocks gene expression. Which molecule is involved? A) siRNAs B) mRNA C) rRNAs D) tRNA

A. siRNAs — siRNA guides degradation or silencing of complementary mRNA.

Exam 1 Q19: Which statement describes one characteristic of the lytic cycle of viral replication? A) Many bacterial cells containing viral DNA are produced B) Viral DNA is incorporated into the host genome C) The viral genome replicates without destroying the host D) A large number of phages are released at a time

D. A large number of phages are released at a time — The lytic cycle ends with cell lysis and release of many new phages.

Exam 1 Q20: Who wrote On the Origin of Species? A) Charlie Chaplin B) Charles Darwin C) Charlie Weis D) Barbara McClintock

B. Charles Darwin — Darwin published On the Origin of Species in 1859.

Exam 1 Q21: Fossils that are the most ancient are found: A) Deep within the rocky soil/strata B) On the superficial layer of soil C) Middle of the soil D) Nowhere

A. Deep within the rocky soil/strata — Older fossils are generally found in deeper rock layers.

Exam 1 Q22: Which small noncoding RNAs reestablish methylation patterns during gamete formation and block some transposons? A) miRNA B) piRNA C) snRNA D) siRNA

B. piRNA — piRNAs help silence transposons, especially in germ cells.

Exam 1 Q23: A mutation in the bicoid gene in Drosophila would most likely affect: A) Egg polarity B) The dorsal-ventral axis C) Segmentation D) The anterior-posterior axis

D. The anterior-posterior axis — Bicoid is a morphogen controlling anterior-posterior patterning.

Exam 1 Q24: Which process can be used to clone animals? A) Use of mitochondrial DNA from adult female cells B) Replication and differentiation of adult stem cells from bone marrow C) Separation of an early-stage blastula into separate cells followed by incubation in a surrogate D) Fusion of an adult cell's nucleus with an enucleated egg followed by incubation in a surrogate

D. Fusion of an adult cell's nucleus with an enucleated egg followed by incubation in a surrogate — Somatic cell nuclear transfer is the classic animal cloning method.

Exam 1 Q25: Which nucleic acids make up viral genomes? A) Double-stranded RNA only B) DNA only C) Single-stranded RNA only D) DNA or RNA

D. DNA or RNA — Viral genomes may be DNA or RNA, single- or double-stranded.

Exam 1 Q26: Which response correctly lists the order of events in a generalized viral replicative cycle? A) Enzymes transcribe viral genome into mRNA, virus enters, host enzymes replicate genome B) Virus enters the cell, host enzymes replicate the viral genome, enzymes transcribe the viral genome into mRNA C) Host enzymes replicate viral genome, enzymes transcribe genome into mRNA, virus enters D) Virus enters the cell, enzymes transcribe genome into mRNA, host enzymes replicate genome

B. Virus enters the cell, host enzymes replicate the viral genome, enzymes transcribe the viral genome into mRNA — A virus must enter the host cell before its genome can be replicated and expressed.

Exam 2 Q1: _____ in heritable traits is a prerequisite for evolution by natural selection. A) Variation B) No variation C) Deletion D) Addition E) Duplication

A. Variation — Natural selection requires heritable variation for some traits to be favored.

Exam 2 Q2: _____ are coding regions of genes. A) Introns B) Exons C) miRNAs D) siRNAs E) ncRNAs

B. Exons — Exons are expressed/coding regions retained in mature mRNA.

Exam 2 Q3: Natural selection acts on individuals, but only _____ evolve. A) populations B) humans C) animals D) rats E) birds

A. populations — Evolution is change in allele frequencies in populations over generations.

Exam 2 Q4: Mutation rates are _____ in viruses due to their _____ generation times. A) slower, slower B) faster, slower C) faster, faster D) inhibited, long E) none of the above

C. faster, faster — Viruses mutate rapidly and reproduce on short generation times.

Exam 2 Q5: Which causes allele frequency changes called microevolution in populations over time? A) natural selection B) genetic drift C) gene flow D) all of the above E) only choices A and B

D. all of the above — Natural selection, genetic drift, and gene flow can all change allele frequencies.

Exam 2 Q6: _____ is the product of both inherited genotype and environmental influences. A) Genotype B) RNA C) Protein D) Phenotype E) Carbohydrates

D. Phenotype — Phenotype is the observable trait produced by genes plus environment.

Exam 2 Q7: _____ can be caused by errors in DNA replication or exposure to high-energy radiation or chemicals such as benzene. A) Supercoiling B) Protein folding C) Mutations D) DNA complexes E) RNA complexes

C. Mutations — Mutations are changes in DNA sequence caused by errors or mutagens.

Exam 2 Q8: Sexual reproduction shuffles existing alleles into new combinations through: A) Crossing over B) Independent assortment C) Random fertilization D) Choices A-C E) Mutations

D. Choices A-C — Crossing over, independent assortment, and random fertilization all recombine existing alleles.

Exam 2 Q9: A/An _____ is a group of individuals that live in the same area and interbreed, producing fertile offspring. A) population B) organism C) genetic drift D) natural selection E) gene flow

A. population — A population is an interbreeding group of the same species in the same area.

Exam 2 Q10: The _____ describes the genetic makeup expected for a population that is not evolving at a specific locus. A) microevolution B) Hardy-Weinberg equation C) natural selection D) adaptation E) gene flow

B. Hardy-Weinberg equation — Hardy-Weinberg predicts genotype frequencies under no evolution.

Exam 2 Q11: _____ is the process by which one species splits into two or more species. A) Phylogeny B) Dissection C) Speciation D) Mutation E) Evolution

C. Speciation — Speciation is the formation of new species.

Exam 2 Q12: _____ refers to broad patterns of evolutionary change above the species level. A) Macroevolution B) Microevolution C) Physics D) Chemistry E) Biochemistry

A. Macroevolution — Macroevolution is large-scale evolution above the species level.

Exam 2 Q13: _____ is the existence of biological barriers that impede members of two species from producing viable, fertile offspring. A) Reproductive barriers B) Reproductive isolation C) Hybrid viability D) Hybrid isolation E) Hybrid success

B. Reproductive isolation — Reproductive isolation is the biological separation that prevents successful interbreeding.

Exam 2 Q14: Prezygotic barriers block fertilization from occurring by: A) Impeding different species from attempting to mate B) Preventing successful completion of mating C) Hindering fertilization if mating is successful D) Choices A-C E) Only choice B

D. Choices A-C — Prezygotic barriers act before fertilization by preventing mating or fertilization.

Exam 2 Q15: _____ isolation results when species breed at different times of day, seasons, or years. A) Habitat B) Behavioral C) Temporal D) Mechanical E) Choices C and D

C. Temporal — Temporal isolation is separation by timing of reproduction.

Exam 2 Q16: Postzygotic barriers prevent the hybrid zygote from developing into a viable, fertile adult by: A) Reduced hybrid viability B) Reduced hybrid fertility C) Hybrid breakdown D) Choices A-C E) Only choice B

D. Choices A-C — Postzygotic barriers include reduced viability, reduced fertility, and hybrid breakdown.

Exam 2 Q17: _____ refers to how even if hybrids are vigorous, they may be sterile. A) Reduced hybrid fertility B) Hybrid breakdown C) Reduced hybrid viability D) Geographical isolation E) Temporal isolation

A. Reduced hybrid fertility — Reduced hybrid fertility means hybrids survive but cannot reproduce successfully.

Exam 2 Q18: _____ refers to first-generation hybrids being fertile, but later-generation offspring being feeble or sterile. A) Reduced hybrid fertility B) Hybrid breakdown C) Reduced hybrid viability D) Geographical isolation E) Temporal isolation

B. Hybrid breakdown — Hybrid breakdown appears in later-generation hybrid offspring.

Exam 2 Q19: _____ refers to genes of different parent species interacting and impairing the hybrid's development or survival. A) Reduced hybrid fertility B) Hybrid breakdown C) Reduced hybrid viability D) Geographical isolation E) Temporal isolation

C. Reduced hybrid viability — Reduced hybrid viability means hybrids fail to develop or survive well.

Exam 2 Q20: _____ has sugar-conducting plant cells. A) Phloem B) Parenchyma C) Collenchyma D) Xylem E) Sclerenchyma

A. Phloem — Phloem transports sugars through sieve-tube elements.

Exam 2 Q21: Which is NOT an assumption of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? A) Large population size B) Random mating C) Sexual selection D) No natural selection E) No gene flow

C. Sexual selection — Hardy-Weinberg assumes no natural selection; sexual selection is a form of selection.

Exam 2 Q22: Indeterminate growth is enabled by _____, perpetually undifferentiated tissues. A) meristems B) stems C) roots D) flowers E) leaves

A. meristems — Meristems are undifferentiated growth tissues in plants.

Exam 2 Q23: A student says a giraffe stretched its neck and its offspring inherited long necks. Which statement corrects the misconception? A) Characteristics acquired during an organism's life are not passed on through genes B) Spontaneous mutations can result in new traits C) Only favorable adaptations have survival value D) Disuse of an organ may lead to disappearance E) All of the above

A. Characteristics acquired during an organism's life are not passed on through genes — Acquired traits are not inherited genetically; this corrects Lamarckian thinking.

Exam 2 Q24: How can genetic variation at the whole-gene level be quantified? A) By the average percentage of loci that are heterozygous B) By the average percentage of loci that are homozygous C) By nucleotide variability D) By differences in noncoding DNA E) Choices A and D

A. By the average percentage of loci that are heterozygous — Gene variability is often measured as average heterozygosity.

Exam 2 Q25: _____ refers to morphological differences that prevent successful mating. A) Habitat isolation B) Behavioral isolation C) Temporal isolation D) Mechanical isolation E) Choices A and B

D. Mechanical isolation — Mechanical isolation is physical incompatibility between reproductive structures.

Exam 2 Q26: Development patterns are _____ determined and subject to natural selection. A) never B) genetically C) always D) sometimes E) only

B. genetically — Plant developmental patterns are genetically determined and can be shaped by natural selection.

Exam 2 Q27: Corn is a top-heavy plant that produces _____ roots to help support the plant. A) pneumatophore B) prop C) fibrous D) pit

B. prop — Prop roots provide extra support for top-heavy plants like corn.

Exam 2 Q28: Strawberries produce _____ that grow along the surface and enable asexual reproduction. A) tubers B) rhizomes C) mycelia D) stolons

D. stolons — Stolons are runners that allow strawberries to reproduce asexually.

Exam 2 Q29: Most terrestrial roots form mycorrhizal associations where fungi supply _____ to roots in exchange for photosynthate. A) minerals B) carbon C) silica D) water E) bacteria

A. minerals — Mycorrhizal fungi increase mineral absorption for the plant.

Exam 2 Q30: The spines of cacti are the _____, while the green fleshy part is the _____ where photosynthesis occurs. A) stems, leaf B) leaves, stem C) roots, leaf D) leaves, root

B. leaves, stem — Cactus spines are modified leaves; the green stem performs photosynthesis.

Exam 2 Q31: _____ has water-conducting plant cells. A) Phloem B) Parenchyma C) Collenchyma D) Xylem E) Sclerenchyma

D. Xylem — Xylem transports water and dissolved minerals.

Exam 3 Q1: _____ live for many years. A) Annuals B) Biennials C) Perennials D) Millennials E) Centennials

C. Perennials — Perennials are plants that live for many years.

Exam 3 Q2: _____ is the outer tissue of roots. A) Dermal B) Ground C) Vascular D) Cortex E) Medulla

A. Dermal — Dermal tissue forms the plant's outer protective covering.

Exam 3 Q3: Faced with environmental fluctuations, animals manage their internal environment by either regulating or _____. A) adapting B) evolving C) conforming D) hibernating E) none of the above

C. conforming — Animals may regulate internal conditions or conform to external conditions.

Exam 3 Q4: _____ is a cooling process that aids in dissipation of heat from an object to the external environment. A) Evaporation B) Condensation C) Convection D) Conduction E) Radiation

A. Evaporation — Evaporation cools by removing heat as water changes to vapor.

Exam 3 Q5: The basic unit of the mammalian kidney is the _____. A) glomerulus B) Bowman's capsule C) loop of Henle D) nephron E) renal medulla

D. nephron — The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney.

Exam 3 Q6: Flatworms have excretory systems called _____, networks of tubules connected to external openings. A) malpighian tubules B) nephrons C) ganglia D) protonephridia E) none of the above

D. protonephridia — Flatworms use protonephridia for excretion/osmoregulation.

Exam 3 Q7: Which is NOT a type of leukocyte? A) eosinophil B) neutrophil C) erythrocyte D) basophil E) none of the above

C. erythrocyte — Erythrocytes are red blood cells, not leukocytes.

Exam 3 Q8: The hypothalamus: A) functions to regulate temperature B) is the only gland in the human body C) releases melatonin D) releases only serotonin E) secretes cortisol

A. functions to regulate temperature — The hypothalamus acts as a thermostat in thermoregulation.

Exam 3 Q9: An animal body's automatic maintenance of a constant and optimal internal environment is termed: A) positive feedback B) negative feedback C) homeostasis D) thermoregulation E) osmoregulation

C. homeostasis — Homeostasis is maintenance of stable internal conditions.

Exam 3 Q10: What part of the kidney forms the filtrate? A) renal pelvis B) Bowman's capsule C) proximal tubule D) loop of Henle E) distal tubule

B. Bowman's capsule — Filtrate enters Bowman's capsule from the blood.

Exam 3 Q11: In the _____ system, neurons transmit signals along dedicated routes connecting specific locations in the body. A) respiratory B) endocrine C) nervous D) digestive E) circulatory

C. nervous — The nervous system sends rapid targeted signals along neurons.

Exam 3 Q13: In the nervous system, _____ travel down axons of neurons. A) nerve impulses B) molecules C) water D) salts E) bases

A. nerve impulses — Nerve impulses/action potentials travel along axons.

Exam 3 Q14: _____ is the process by which animals maintain internal temperature within a normal range. A) Osmoregulation B) Thermoregulation C) Conduction D) Convection E) Evaporation

B. Thermoregulation — Thermoregulation controls body temperature.

Exam 3 Q15: Organisms exchange heat by: A) radiation B) evaporation C) conduction D) all of the above E) none of the above

D. all of the above — Heat exchange includes radiation, evaporation, conduction, and convection.

Exam 3 Q16: _____ engulf and eat dead debris, pathogens, or broken cells. A) Basophils B) Dendritic cells C) Macrophages D) Eosinophils E) Neutrophils

C. Macrophages — Macrophages are large phagocytic cells.

Exam 3 Q17: The general function of the _____ is to filter blood in the lumen of Bowman's capsule in each nephron. A) kidney B) liver C) pancreas D) heart E) lungs

A. kidney — Kidneys filter blood and produce urine.

Exam 3 Q18: If you twist your earlobe, it does not remain twisted because it contains _____. A) epithelial tissue B) connective tissue C) muscle tissue D) nervous tissue E) endothelial tissue

B. connective tissue — The earlobe contains connective tissue that provides structure and elasticity.

Exam 3 Q19: _____ in the small intestine absorb dietary lipids not absorbed by blood capillaries. A) Lacteals B) Flame bulbs C) Connective tissue D) Polyps E) None of the above

A. Lacteals — Lacteals are lymphatic vessels that absorb dietary lipids.

Exam 4 Q1: The bone that articulates/joins the sternum to the humerus is called _____. A) clavicle B) tibia C) fibula D) acromion E) humerus

A. clavicle — The clavicle connects the sternum to the shoulder region leading to the humerus.

Exam 4 Q2: The _____ protects the spinal cord. A) femur B) humerus C) vertebral column D) cerebral spinal fluid E) tibia

C. vertebral column — The vertebral column surrounds and protects the spinal cord.

Exam 4 Q3: The nervous system consists of _____. A) muscles B) the central nervous system and peripheral nervous system C) only the brain D) spinal cord and brain E) only the spinal cord

B. the central nervous system and peripheral nervous system — The nervous system is divided into CNS and PNS.

Exam 4 Q4: The peripheral nervous system (PNS) consists of _____. A) skeletal muscle only B) cardiac muscle, glands, and adipose tissue C) skeletal muscle, skin, joints, and bones D) cranial and spinal nerves, ganglia, and sensory receptors E) sensory receptors only

D. cranial and spinal nerves, ganglia, and sensory receptors — The PNS includes nerves and ganglia outside the CNS plus sensory receptors.

Exam 4 Q5: The _____ increases the speed of nerve impulse transmission. A) myelin sheath B) terminal bouton C) cell body D) axon E) dendrites

A. myelin sheath — Myelin insulates axons and speeds impulse conduction.

Exam 4 Q6: _____ are involved in the production of cerebrospinal fluid. A) Microglial cells B) Ependymal cells C) Oligodendrocytes D) Astrocytes E) Glial

B. Ependymal cells — Ependymal cells help produce and circulate cerebrospinal fluid.

Exam 4 Q7: A general function of the nervous system is: A) To detect internal and external changes B) To analyze detected changes C) To organize information D) All of the above E) None of the above

D. All of the above — The nervous system detects, processes, organizes, and initiates responses.

Exam 4 Q8: An eosinophil neutralizes _____ during allergic reactions. A) serotonin B) acetylcholine C) histamine D) epinephrine E) melatonin

C. histamine — Eosinophils neutralize histamine and help reduce allergic inflammation.

Exam 4 Q9: The largest part of the brain is called the _____. A) cerebellum B) cerebrum C) temporal lobe D) occipital lobe E) parietal lobe

B. cerebrum — The cerebrum is the largest brain region and handles higher functions.

Exam 4 Q10: The extension of a neuron that sends nerve impulses away from the cell body is called a/an _____. A) dendrite B) terminal button C) nucleus D) axon E) cell body

D. axon — Axons carry impulses away from the neuron cell body.

Exam 4 Q11: _____ have numerous functions to nourish, support, and regulate neurons. A) Glia B) Astrocytes C) Oligodendrocytes D) Schwann cells E) Ependymal cells

A. Glia — Glial cells support, nourish, protect, and regulate neurons.

Exam 4 Q12: The spinal cord acts independently of the brain in simple nerve circuits that produce _____, the body's automatic responses. A) blood B) immune cells C) nerve impulses D) reflexes E) infectious cells

D. reflexes — Reflexes are automatic responses mediated by simple neural circuits.

Exam 4 Q13: _____ is formed in the brain by filtering arterial blood and supplies the CNS with nutrients/hormones and carries away wastes. A) Water B) Salt C) Cerebrospinal fluid D) Interstitial fluid E) Potassium chloride

C. Cerebrospinal fluid — Cerebrospinal fluid cushions, nourishes, and removes wastes from the CNS.

Exam 4 Q14: The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is the _____ response. A) fight and flight B) rest and digest C) sleep D) awake E) irritated

A. fight and flight — The sympathetic division activates fight-or-flight responses.

Exam 4 Q15: _____ can be used to detect brain activity during happy or sad music. A) PET B) fMRI C) MRI D) Glucose monitoring system E) CT

B. fMRI — fMRI detects brain activity by measuring local changes in blood oxygen.

Exam 4 Q16: The functions of the nervous system include: A) Detect internal and external changes B) Analysis of detected changes C) Organization of information and initiation of appropriate action D) All of the above E) None of the above

D. All of the above — These are all major nervous system functions.

Exam 4 Q17: _____ are released into the synapse between neurons to stimulate or inhibit nerve impulses. A) Neurotransmitters B) Hormones C) Enzymes D) Proteins E) Genes

A. Neurotransmitters — Neurotransmitters cross the synapse and bind receptors on the next cell.

Exam 4 Q18: The cerebrum, largest portion of the brain, performs higher brain functions such as: A) sensations B) voluntary actions C) reasoning D) all of the above and more functions E) none of the above

D. all of the above and more functions — The cerebrum handles sensory interpretation, voluntary action, reasoning, planning, and more.

Exam 4 Q19: A/An _____ consists of all organisms in a community and the abiotic factors with which they interact. A) ecosystem B) biosphere C) mass D) energy flow E) entropy

A. ecosystem — An ecosystem includes the living community plus abiotic environment.

Exam 4 Q20: The second law of thermodynamics states that every exchange of energy increases the _____ in the universe. A) energy B) mass C) measurement of disorder D) chemical cycling E) measurement of order

C. measurement of disorder — Entropy is the measure of disorder; energy transfers increase entropy.

Exam 4 Q21: If a friend jumps out and scares you, what would you expect to observe in your nervous system? A) Increased activity in all parts of the PNS B) Increased sympathetic activity and decreased parasympathetic activity C) Decreased sympathetic activity and increased parasympathetic activity D) Increased enteric nervous system activity E) Decreased enteric nervous system activity

B. Increased sympathetic activity and decreased parasympathetic activity — Fear activates sympathetic fight-or-flight and suppresses parasympathetic rest-and-digest.

Exam 4 Q22: After a brain injury, Sheila has trouble with calculation, contemplation, and cognition. What part was likely injured? A) pituitary gland B) hypothalamus C) cerebrum D) cerebellum E) epithalamus

C. cerebrum — The cerebrum controls higher functions such as cognition and reasoning.

Exam 4 Q23: Why is cycling used for chemical elements but flow is used for energy exchange in ecosystems? A) Chemical elements are repeatedly used, but energy passes through and between ecosystems B) Photosynthesis transforms chemical elements with no effect on energy transfer C) Chemical elements flow between ecosystems whereas energy stays within one ecosystem D) Photosynthesis alters system energy without changing elements E) Photosynthesis converts chemical energy to mass

A. Chemical elements are repeatedly used, but energy passes through and between ecosystems — Matter is recycled, but energy moves through ecosystems and is lost as heat.

Exam 4 Q24: Which is an example of an ecosystem? A) All brook trout in a 500-square-hectare drainage B) Interactions between all plant and animal species in a savanna C) Plants, animals, and decomposers in an alpine meadow D) Interactions between all organisms and their desert environment E) All rocks and soil

D. Interactions between all organisms and their desert environment — An ecosystem includes organisms plus abiotic environmental factors.

Exam 4 Q25: These leukocytes are the first to respond to tissue damage. A) T cells B) B cells C) basophils D) eosinophils E) neutrophils

E. neutrophils — Neutrophils are first responders in acute inflammation.