Cardio Exam 2: Elsaid Anti-Coags (DRUGS + PATHWAY)

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Last updated 8:20 AM on 6/23/26
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64 Terms

1
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Which pathway is initiated by Tissue Factor (TF)?

_____ pathway.

  • Tissue Factor + Factor _____ → _____ complex

  • _____ activates Factor _____ → _____

  • Also activates Factor _____ → _____

Extrinsic, VII, VIIa-TF, VIIa-TF, X, Xa, XI, XIa

2
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What is the key enzyme that converts prothrombin into thrombin?

_____.

  • It converts Factor _____ (_____) → Factor _____ (_____)

Factor Xa, II, Prothrombin, IIa, Thrombin

3
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What is the role of thrombin (Factor IIa)?

Converts fibrinogen (Factor I) to fibrin (Factor Ia) to form a clot.

4
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What is the clotting sequence most often tested?

_____ → _____ → _____ → _____ (_____) → _____

TF + VII, VIIa-TF, Xa, IIa (Thrombin), Fibrin

5
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Why do patients with liver failure bleed easily?

The liver produces clotting factors:

  • _____

  • _____
    ↓ Liver function = ↓ clotting factor production

II, VII, IX, and X, Protein S and C

6
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What endogenous anticoagulant is required for heparin to work?

Antithrombin III (ATIII)

7
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Which clotting factors does antithrombin inhibit?

Factor IIa (Thrombin) and Factor Xa

8
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What is heparin's true target?

Antithrombin III

9
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What is UFH's MOA?

Binds ATIII and causes allosteric activation, resulting in increased inhibition of Xa and IIa

10
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Why can UFH inhibit thrombin (IIa)?

Long chain (>18 saccharides) allows binding of both ATIII and thrombin

11
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What ratio of Xa:IIa inhibition does UFH have?

1:1

12
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What adverse effect is classically associated with UFH?

Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)

13
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What antidote reverses UFH?

Protamine sulfate

14
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A patient develops thrombocytopenia 7 days after starting heparin. What is occurring?

_____

  • _____-mediated

  • _____ activation

  • _____ risk

  • STOP all _____ products

Type II HIT, Ab, platelet, thrombosis, heparin

15
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Which LMWH is most commonly tested?

Enoxaparin (Lovenox)

16
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Why does LMWH inhibit Xa more than IIa?

Shorter chain (<18 saccharides), Cannot effectively bridge ATIII and thrombin

17
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What is the Xa:IIa inhibition ratio of LMWH?

3:1

18
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Preferred anticoagulant in pregnancy?

LMWH (Enoxaparin)

19
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Preferred anticoagulant in oncology patients?

LMWH (Enoxaparin)

20
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What dosing adjustment is required for LMWH?

Renal dose adjustment

21
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What antidote partially reverses LMWH?

Protamine sulfate

22
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Which causes more HIT?

UFH > LMWH

23
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What is Fondaparinux?

Synthetic pentasaccharide

24
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What receptor/protein does Fondaparinux bind?

Antithrombin III

25
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What clotting factor does Fondaparinux inhibit?

Factor Xa ONLY

26
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Why can't Fondaparinux inhibit thrombin?

Too short to bridge ATIII and thrombin

27
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Which anticoagulant is often used in patients with HIT?

Fondaparinux

28
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Which oral direct thrombin inhibitor exists?

Dabigatran (Pradaxa)

29
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What factor does Dabigatran directly inhibit?

Thrombin (Factor IIa)

30
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What advantage do DTIs have over heparin?

Inhibit BOTH:

  • _____

  • _____

Circulating thrombin, clot-bound thrombin

31
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Main indications for Dabigatran?

Non-valvular A-fib and DVT/PE treatment

32
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What monoclonal antibody reverses Dabigatran?

Idarucizumab (Praxbind)

33
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What does Idarucizumab bind?

Dabigatran itself

34
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Which DTI is preferred for HIT with renal impairment?

Argatroban

35
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Which DTI is hepatically cleared?

Argatroban

36
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Which DTI is renally cleared?

Bivalirudin

37
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Which drugs are direct oral Factor Xa inhibitors?

Edoxaban, Apixaban, and Rivaroxaban

38
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What factor do Apixaban, Rivaroxaban, and Edoxaban directly inhibit?

Factor Xa

39
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Main indication for Factor Xa inhibitors?

Non-valvular A-fib and DVT/PE

40
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Which enzyme/transporter interactions are important for Xa inhibitors?

CYP3A4 and P-gp

41
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Which patients should NOT receive Xa inhibitors?

Patients with prosthetic heart valves

42
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Which reversal agent acts as a decoy Factor Xa protein?

Andexanet alfa (Andexxa)

43
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What enzyme does warfarin inhibit?

Vitamin K Epoxide Reductase (VKOR)

44
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What is warfarin's MOA?

_____ → depletes _____ → prevents _____

Inhibits VKOR, active Vitamin K, activation of clotting factors

45
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Which clotting factors are Vitamin K dependent?

2, 7, 9, and 10

46
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Which anticoagulant proteins are Vitamin K dependent?

Protein S and C

47
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Why does warfarin take 5–7 days to work?

Existing clotting factors must first be degraded

48
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What lab monitors warfarin?

INR

49
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What is the typical INR goal?

2-3

50
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Which genetic polymorphism increases warfarin sensitivity?

CYP2C9 mutation

51
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What food interaction is classically tested with warfarin?
_____

  • _____

  • _____

  • _____

Vitamin K-rich foods, Spinach, Kale, Broccoli

52
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A patient started warfarin and asks why they need bridging with heparin.

Warfarin takes several days to reduce clotting factor levels; heparin provides immediate anticoagulation

53
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What is the reversal strategy for life-threatening warfarin bleeding?

Kcentra + Vitamin K.

54
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ENTER AFTER EACH BULLET POINT

  • UFH → ATIII → _____

  • LMWH → ATIII → _____

  • Fondaparinux → ATIII → _____

  • Dabigatran → _____ inhibitor

  • Argatroban → _____ inhibitor

  • Bivalirudin → _____ inhibitor

  • Apixaban → _____ inhibitor

  • Rivaroxaban → _____ inhibitor

  • Edoxaban → _____ inhibitor

  • Warfarin → _____ inhibitor

  • Protamine → _____

  • Idarucizumab → _____

  • Andexanet → _____

  • Kcentra → replaces clotting factors _____

Xa + IIa
mostly Xa
Xa only
Direct IIa

Direct IIa

Direct IIa

Direct Xa

Direct Xa

VKOR

binds heparin

binds Dabigatran

decoy Xa

II, VII, IX, and X

55
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Name the three LMWHs commonly tested.

Enoxaparin (Lovenox), Dalteparin, and Tinzaparin

56
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Which IV direct thrombin inhibitor is preferred in a patient with HIT and renal dysfunction?

Argatroban (hepatically cleared)

57
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Which IV direct thrombin inhibitor is preferred in a patient with HIT and hepatic dysfunction?

Bivalirudin (renally cleared)

58
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What are the three direct thrombin inhibitors you need to know?

Dabigatran (oral), Argatroban (IV), and Bivalirudin (IV)

59
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What are the other Factor Xa drugs? (3)

Apixaban (Eliquis), Rivaroxaban (Xarelto), and Edoxaban (Savaysa)

60
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Match the reversal agent to the anticoagulant.

  • Protamine → _____

  • Idarucizumab (Praxbind) → _____

  • Andexanet alfa (Andexxa) → _____

  • Kcentra (4-factor PCC) → _____

UFH (full) and LMWH (partial), Dabigatran, Apixaban and Rivaroxaban, Warfarin

61
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How much protamine is needed to reverse heparin?

1 mg protamine per 100 units of heparin administered in the previous 30 mins

62
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A patient develops Type II HIT while receiving UFH. What should you do?

  • Stop _____ products immediately.

  • Start a _____:

    • _____

    • _____

    • _____

all heparin, non-heparin anticoagulant, Argatroban, Bivalirudin, Fondaparinux

63
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Which anticoagulants require Antithrombin III to work?

UFH, LMWH, and Fondaparinux

64
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Which drugs directly inhibit clotting factors versus indirectly inhibit them?

UFH (Xa + IIa), LMWH (mostly Xa), and Fondaparinux (Xa only)