Last info WS keys

_____ is the most frequently seen disorder of the thyroid in dogs: whereas _______ is more common in cats

hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism

The treatment of choice for thyroid disease in cats is _____

a.        Radioactive iodine therapy

b.        Surgical removal of the entire thyroid gland

c.        Tapazole given orally

d.        Y/D or other iodine deficient diets

A: radioactive iodine therapy

List some pros and cons of the above treatment for thyroid disease in cats

Pros: targets abnormal cells, not healthy ones, no need for daily medication, close to a “cure”. Cons: scarcity of availability, radioactive urine (feces)

The treatment of choice for thyroid disease in dogs is _____

Levothyroxine

what are some abnormal findings we could see in the urinalysis of a patient with newly diagnosed and untreated diabetes

Glucosuria, decreases Usg, (ketonuria, proteinuria, bactiuria, pyuria)

_____ and ______ are tests that can be used to evaluate AVERAGE blood glucose concentrations over a longer period of time and can be used to monitor animals with diabetes

Fructosamine, (hemoglobin_ A1C

A sodium potassium ratio (Na:K) of less than <27 is indicative of which endocrinopathy

addisons (hypoadrenocroticsm)

Which two endocrinpathies can cause bilateral symmetrical alopecia in dogs

hypothyroidism, hyperadrenocorticism (cushings)

Serum calcium levels >12mg/dL indicate a disease of the _____ gland

parathyroid

the drug mitotane and trilostane are used to treat which endocrinopathy

hyperadrenocorticsm

which endocrinopathy can cause a serum chemistry that “mimics” renal disease by casuing azotemia and sometimes hypercalcemia and hyperkalemia

hypoadrenocorticism

which other endocrinopathy is commonly seen with and as a result of hyperadrenocrticism

diabetes mellitus

insulinomas result in ________ because they are functional tumor of which organ _____

hypoglycemia, pancreas (beta cells)

which gland is mostly responsible for maintaining calcium regulation

parathyroid gland

Eclampsia is seen when _____ and is an abnormality of which electrolyte

post partum (late gestation), calcium

which breed of dog is most pre-disposed to hypoadrenocorticim

poodles

name the four hormones produced by the endocrine pancreas

insulin, glucagon, somatostatin, pancreatic polypeptide

which of the four hormones produced by the endocrine pancreas is produced by beta cells

insulin

what is the definition of cytology

microscopic examination of cells for diagnostic information and treatment purposes

What are some advantages of cytology as a diagnostic test

inexpensive, non-invasive, fast, no special equipment

What is the biggest disadvantage of cytology as a diagnostic test

sometimes non-diagnostic

what does FNA stand for

fine needle aspirate

what size needles would you use for a fine needle biopsy

22-25g

describe how you would preserve a tissue biopsy sample (in what solution, what volume)

10% neutral buffered formalin, 10-15 times the volume of tissue sample (larger samples 3” slices)

define “centesis”

surgical puncture of a body cavity or organ to remove fluid or gas for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes

What is “thoracocentesis”

removing fluid from pleural space

what is the best patient postion for thoracocentesis

sternal, anyway they can breathe

what is the preferred fixative for most cytology specimens

95% methanol

what is the minimum time of a cytology sample should be placed in fixative

2 minutes (2-5 mins)

for which type of sample may the total solids reading on a refractometer be inaccurate

chylous

what is a '“fistulated lesion”

abnormal passage between two internal organs or from an internal organ to the body surface

what is the ideal sample collection device for cytology from a fistulated lesion

swabbing

name two techniques for making cytology slides from a fluid sample

line smear, wedge smear

name the four techniques for making cytology slides from a “solid” sample

compression prep, modified compression, combination, starfish

What is the preferred sample preperation technique when samples are highly viscous

starfish prep

a chylous effusion is what color ______ and if any cells contains increased numbers of ______

white, lymphocytes

What is the best cell for staining mast cell granules (suspected mast cell tumors)

new methylene blue

what is the preferred stain for core bone marrow samples

Hemotoxylin and eosin

define hyper segmented neutrophil

a neutrophil with more than 5 lobes in the nucleus

define Pyknotic nucleus

a very condensed (small dark) nucleus

define Karolytic nucleus

fragmentation of cell nucleus

define karyorrhexis

fragmented neutrophil nucleus

a round cell that contains a fringe border and fine nuclear chromatin is most likley

mesothelial cell

a macrophage on tissue cytology is the equivalent of what cell in the peripheral blood

monocyte

Non-arpiation biopsy technique is preferred for samples that are ____

vascular

regarding vaginal cytology, a sample containing a mixture of parabasal, intermediate, and superficial cells with RBCs and neutrophils likely indicates

a.        Estrus

b.        Proestrus

c.        Metestrus

d.        Anestrus

b: proestrus- RBCs is the hint

A common organism seen in oral cytology samples and considered normal flora is

a.        Malassezia

b.        Otodectes

c.        Simonsiella

d.        Blastomyces

c: simonsiella

the most common fungal organism seen in ear cytology sample is

Malassezia pachydermatitis

Ododectes is the scientific name for what

ear mites

name the findings we report on semen evaluation

volume, motility, live: dead ratio, opacity/color, concentration, morphology

what are the three types of splenic masses/tumors

hematoma, hemangioma, hemangiosarcoma

name some oral tumors in cats

epulis, melanoma, SCC (squamous cell carcinoma)

What is the most benign oral tumor in cats, what is most malignant

epulis (squamous cell carcinoma is most malignant)

what would a jamshidi needle be used for

bone biopsy

generally what are the three outcomes of gastrointestinal biopsy

inflammatory, autoimmune, neoplasia

are bacteria prokaryotic or eukaryotic

prokaryotic (no nucleus)

the study of fungal organisms is called

mycoloy

are fungi prokaryotic or eukaryotic

eukaryotic (have a nucleus)

what is the diffrence between prokaryotic and eukaryotic

prokaryotic:no nucleus or membrane bound organelles

eukaryotic: have nucleus and membrane bound organelles

Agar media plates are placed in the incubator upside down why?

Condenation occurs when incubated, don’t want to drip onto agar/culture

which type of culture medium is the standard for bacterial antibiotic suseptibity testing

Mueller-Hinton

what would a catalse test be used on gram positive coccal (cocci) colonies determine

if bacteria is staphylococcus (catalase +) or steptococcus (catalase -)

what color dies a positive bile-esculin culture turn and what does a postive result mean

Positive turns agar black, which means it is an enterococcal streptococci

what bacteria genus would you be looking at if you see “seagull” shaped rod formation in a fecal swab

campylobacter spp.

Most Bacillus species (a Gram+ rod) are considered normal flora. What are two exceptions and what species do they affect

Bacillus anthracis- cattle, sheep, humans (anthrax)

Bacillus piliformis- rodent, foals (acute fatal enteritis)

describe the appearance of Beta-Hemolytic steptococci on a TSA (blood agar) plate

area of complete hemolysis (clear agar) surrounding the colony

do bacteria that cause beta hemolysis tend to pathogenic or non-pathogenic

pathogenic

examples of places where fungi can normally be found include

environment, soil, on an organism (plant or animal) externally (skin, hair, ears, nails), inside of an organism (GI tract, respiratory tract, urogenital tract)

what are four general types/classifications of fungal organisms

dermatophytes

saprophytes

yeast

dimorphic fungi

name three species of dimorphic fungi

Histoplasma capsulatum (respiratory infecion dogs, cats, humans)

 Blastomyces dermatitidis (respiratory, skin, ocular infections in dogs, humans)

Coccidiodes immitis (respiratory in dogs, humans more less commonly bones, internal organ infection)

If dimorphic fungi are suspected but not seen on microscopic exam, should you culture or perform serology to confirm?  _________   Why?  _______

serology, culture is dangerous, zoonotic diease

 

Of these three species of dimorphic fungi, which would not be expected to be seen in a dog from ND or MN that has not travelled out of the Midwest?

coccidiodes immitis

What is the “common name” for a coccidiodes infection?

valley fever

Which of the following are reasons a veterinary practice would use an outside laboratory for microbiology?

a.        They need many types of culture media

b.        They do not have staff trained to perform in-house tests

c.        They are looking for difficult-to-grow microorganisms

d.        All of the above

d: all of the above

A selective agar is one that:

a.        Allows no type of bacteria to grow

b.        Differentiates between different types of bacteria

c.        Inhibits the growth of certain bacteria

d.        Changes color when first inoculated

c: inhibits the growth of certain bacteria

Sterile areas of the body are those that:

a.        Contain only one type of bacteria

b.        Contain multiple types of bacteria or fungi

c.        Normally contain no bacteria or fungi

d.        Contain only normal flora

c: normally contain no bacteria or fungi

Blood cultures should be:

a.         Inoculated immediately onto all three plates

b.        Taken from EDTA blood only

c.         Placed in broth first, then incubated

d.        Normally growing many bacteria

c: placed in broth first, then incubated

Fecal cultures:

a.        Generally do not grow many organisms

b.        Require special media

c.        Should never be gram stained

d.        Are not species-specific

b: require special media

Gram-negative cocci:

a.        Are not often encountered in the veterinary laboratory

b.        Are identified by use of the API 20E system

c.        Include Neisseria and Moraxella spp.

d.        a and c

d: a and c

On a MAC plate, lactose-fermenting bacteria will appear:

a.        clear

b.        pink or purple

c.        dark blue

d.        with a zone of hemolysis

b: pink or purple

Fungal cultures:

a.        Are performed using the same types of media as bacterial cultures

b.        Are incubated in the dark at room temperature

c.        Are held for one month to confirm negative results

d.        B and C

d: B and C

When shipping samples for culture, it is:

a.         Okay to hold the sample for a few days before shipping

b.        Normal practice to ship in a padded envelope only

c.         Important to avoid the use of culturettes in shipped specimens

d.        Best to refrigerate samples to help them stay viable

d: best to refrigerate samples to help them stay viable

Bordetella and Pasteurella spp. Have these characteristics:

a.        They are gram-negative coccobacilli

b.        They usually only grow on the TSA plate

c.        They can be identified by the API system

d.        All of the above

d: all of the above

Dermatophyte fungi:

a.        Cause ringworm in humans and animals

b.        Can be grown in 0.9% saline

c.        Are not typically encountered in the veterinary laboratory

d.        Can be identified, to species, macroscopically

A: cause ringworm in humans and animals

Candida infections commonly occur when:

a.        the animal has not been on antibiotics for awhile

b.        the organism first shows up in a body system

c.        the host is healthy and immune competent

d.        a primary bacterial infection is already present

d: a primary bacteria infection is already present

Aspergillus spp are fungi that:

a.        are found in the environment and do not cause disease in animals

b.        cannot be grown in the veterinary laboratory

c.        are opportunistic pathogens that can also cause disease through feed, such as hay

d.        are dimorphic fungi

c: are opportunistic pathogens that can also cause disease through feed, such as hay

GRAM-POSITIVE RODS- Complete the following chart with species names to match the clinical disease

Listeria _______                                                   brain-stem, neuro signs

Bacillus__                                                        Anthrax, sudden death rumin.

_________ rhusiopathoiae                     endocarditis, septicemia

Corynebacterium ___                                            UTI in pigs, ruminants

___________ ____ equi                                             foal pneumonia

Corynebacterium ___                            caseous lymphadenitis (sm. rum)   

 

Listeria monocytogenes

Bacillus anthracis

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathoiae

Corynebacterium renale

Corynebacterium equi

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

The outward manifestation of the DNA or genotype is the _____

Phenotype

What is an allele

Forms of a genetic trait that may be present

What do you call a gene that modifies the expression of other genees

Epistatic gene

What is the difference between mitosis and meosis

Mitosis: the division of somatic cells where the resulting cells contain a full number of chromosomes

Meiosis: The divison of gametes where the resulting cells contain ½ number

What is the diffrence between congenital and inherited

Inherited: a trait received genetically from ones parents

Congenital: present from birth

The breeding system where individuals that are chosen for specific similar charteritics is called

Assortive mating

The breeding system where mating is between two unrelated animals to keep the gene pool as large as possible is called

Outbreeding (random breeding)

The breeding system where on male is mated to multiple females is called

Harem breeding

The breeding system where closley related indivudls are bred to produce ever increasing similarities in their offspring

inbreeding

inbreeding is typically used on what kind of animals (as it is typically not desiref for other breeding)

lab animals like ,mice and rabbits

gestation canine

63 days

gestation feline

63 days

equine gestation

11 months