860c EXAM 3

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Last updated 8:37 PM on 4/21/26
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176 Terms

1
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shock

an imbalance between O2 demand and O2 supply characterized by end organ dysfunction, altered hemodynamic parameters, altered O2 metabolism

2
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what are some clinical signs and symptoms of shock?

1) altered mental status

2) tachycardia and loe BP

3) cool clammy skin

4) reduced urine output

5) increased lactate

3
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how to calculate MAP

SBP + 2(DBP)/3

4
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what is the MAP goal for a shock patient?

> 65

5
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what are the 4 general types of shock?

1) hypovolemic

2) distributive

3) cardiogenic

4) obstructive

6
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hypovolemic shock

shock resulting from blood or fluid loss

- hemorrhagic

- dehydration (vomiting/diarrhea)

- burns

7
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distributive shock

A condition that occurs when there is widespread vasodilation

- sepsis

- anaphylaxis

- neurogenic

8
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cariogenic shock

shock that results from

inadequate pumping of heart

- heart failure

- arrhythmias

9
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obstructive shock

shock that results from decreased CO or venous return due to blockage

- tension pneumothorax

- pulmonary embolism

10
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what are the two main fluid compartments in the body?

1) intracellular space

2) extracellular space (intravascular and interstitial)

11
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ICF is _____ TBW and ECF is ______ TBW (ECF is further broken down into interstitial which is _____ of ECF and intravascular which is ____ of ECF space)

2/3

1/3

3/4

1/4

12
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isotonic

stay in the ECF -> no effect on ICF

13
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example of isotonic fluids 1

1) NS

2) balanced crystalloids (LR, plasmalyte)

14
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hypotonic

increase the ICF -> distributed throughout ICF and ECF

15
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examples of hypotonic solutions

1) D5W

2) 1/2 NS

3) 1/4 NS

16
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hypertonic

can decrease ICF since they stay in the ECF and can even pull water out of the ICF

17
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hypertonic solution example

3% NaCl

18
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what is a risk factor with using NS over balanced crystalloids?

NS can cause hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis -> Na and Cl usually increase and decrease together but in this case Cl concentration goes up

19
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what is a concern with using balanced crystalloids

compatibility issues but usually use these over NS

20
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what are two myths about balanced crystalloids?

1) since they contain lactate and the patient has elevated lactate, we cant give

2) since they contain K+ we cant use if the patient is hyperkalemic

21
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colloids

large molecules that remain in the intravascular space and give oncotic force to pull fluid into the intravascular space

22
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3 examples of colloids

1) starches (hydroxyethyl starch)

2) dextrans

3) albumin

23
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albumin

100% stays in the intravascular space

- costs alot of money and doesnt work too well

24
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ADRs with hydroxyethyl starch

increase AKI and mortality risk -> dont use

25
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ADRs with dextrans

renal dysfunction and anaphylaxis -> dont use

26
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what are some ADRs with albumin

can leak into extravascular space and cause fluid accumulation and edema

27
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what is the issue with compounding 5% albumin from 25% albumin by using sterile water for injection to dilute it?

you cant do this because it will create a HYPOTONIC solution which can put the patient at risk for hemolysis and hypotension -> must dilute with D5W only

28
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what is the 1st line treatment for hemorrhagic hypovolemic shock?

blood products -> PRBCs because we want to replace the blood that the patient is losing

29
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what is 1st line therapy for hypovolemic shock?

FLUIDS -> LR/plasmalyte or NS (never give D5W for fluid resuscitation)

30
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what are the 7 vasopressor agents in shock treatment?

1) norepinephrine

2) vasopressin

3) epinephrine

4) dopamine

5) phenylephrine

6) isoproterenol

7) dobutamine

31
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norepinephrine

alpha 1 agonist (increases SVR) and B1 agonist (increases HR) and B2 agonist (slightly decreases SVR)

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vasopressin

V1 agonist to increase SVR

33
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epinephrine

alpha 1 agonist (increases SVR) and B1 agonist (increases HR) and B2 agonist (slightly decreases SVR and bronchodialate)

34
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Does epi or NE have a greater effect on HR?

Epi -> has slightly more affinity for beta receptors than alpha receptors

35
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dopamine

low dose = dopamine agonist

medium dose = B1 agonist & dopamine agonist

high dose = a1 agonist, B1 agonist, & dopamine agonist

36
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T/F: dopamine has a high incidence of arrhythmias compared to the other vasopressors

TRUE

37
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phenylephrine

pure a1 agonist to increase SVR -> not really used though because can cause reflex bradycardia

38
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isoproterenol & dobutamine

B1 agonists (positive chronotropes and inotropes) that are useful in cardiogenic shock

39
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neurogenic shock

a type of distributive shock in which there is a dysregulation of the NS due to injury at or above T6 vertebra

40
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sepsis

life threatening organ dysfunction and dysregulated host response to infection

41
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septic shock

patients with sepsis who require vasopressors to maintain MAP > 65 and have a serum lactate >/= 2 mmol/L despite adequate volume resuscitation

42
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what are the 3 components of the qSOFA score?

respiratory rate, blood pressure, and altered mental status

43
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qSOFA score

if a patient has >/= 2 of RR >/= 22, SBP

44
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T/F: Fluid resuscitation of crystalloid fluids MUST occur in the setting of septic shock B4 initiation of vasopressors

TRUE because vasopressors need adequate preload/volume in order to be effective

45
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abx therapy in a septic patient

broad spectrum abx for MRSA or pseudomonas coverage

46
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broad spectrum gram -

1) cefepime

2) piperacilin-tazobactram

3) carbapenems

47
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broad spectrum gram +

1) vancomycin

2) linezolid

3) daptomycin

48
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T/F: bacterial cultures MUST BE DONE FIRST in a septic patient BEFORE the initiation of abx

TRUE

49
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when should abx be started in a patient suspected of sepsis?

within 1 hr (& after bacterial culture)

50
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what is the infusion rate of crystalloid fluids in septic shock?

30 mL/kg IV within the first 3 hours with a MAP goal of > 65

- if not met, then give adjunct vasopressor

51
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T/F: want to give patients with HF, kidney impatient, pulmonary edema less than 30 ml/kg or fluids due to risk of fluid overload

TRUE

52
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what is a dynamic fluid response assessment?

passive leg rise (45 degree angle with change in BP = pt responsive to fluids)

53
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which vasopressor is first line in septic shock & hypotensive/normal HR neurogenic shock?

norepinephrine

54
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which vasopressor is 2nd line in septic shock?

vasopressin then epi

55
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when to initiate corticosteroids in a patient with septic shock?

if the MAP is < 65 still with adequate fluids and vasopressors (aka pressor resistant septic shock)

56
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what corticosteroid is used in the setting of septic shock?

IV hydrocortisone (max 200 mg/day)

57
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what is the benefit of using steroids in septic shock?

reduce ICU length of stay, time on mechanical vent, and shock duration/time on vasopressors

- no effect on mortality

- did no increase risk of new infection

58
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what vasopressor is first line for neurogenic shock in hypotensive & bradycardic patient with neurogenic shock?

epi or dopamine

59
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anaphylaxis is likely when:

1) involvement of skin/mucosal (rash, hives, itching) + at least one of sudden respiratory symptoms or collapse (decrease in BP)

2) two or more of: involvement of skin/mucosal (rash, hives, itching), sudden respiratory symptoms, hemodynamic instability/collapse (decrease in BP), sudden GI symptoms (cramping, pain, vomiting)

3) reduced BP when exposed to known allergen

60
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what vasopressor is first line in anaphylaxis?

epinephrine

61
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what is the dosing for epinephrine in anaphylaxis?

0.3-0.5 mg IM Q5-15 min with max 3 doses

- give in anterolateral portion of thigh; give continuous epi infusion once maxed on 3 doses of 1 mcg/min

62
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T/F: there are no contraindications to the use of Epi in anaphylaxis

TRUE

63
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what are some examples of how a lab value in critical care may leas to inappropriate clinical action

1) mild hyponatremia may be rapidly corrected and lead to osmotic demyelination

2) elevated K+ may occur from damaged RBC but lead to unnecessary hyperkalemia tx

3) elevated BUN may be mistaken for kidney dysfunction

4) increase in WBC after major surgery may be mistaken for an infection

5) high blood glucose due to infection/inflammation may be mistaken as DM

64
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T/F: Na and Cl tend to increase and decrease together

TRUE and if they dont there is likely an acid base disturbance like hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis

65
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example of when NaCl values aren't changing but their concentration relative to fluid increase or they decrease

they can increase when the patient is hypovolemic and decrease when patient is in volume overload

66
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T/F: Na concentrations may be higher than normal in patients with dehydration

TRUE

67
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T/F: hyponatremia can result from fluid overload (from fluid diluting the Na concentration) or fluid loss (executive vomiting/diarrhea like in hypovolemic hyponatremia)

TRUE

68
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what is the most common intracellular ion?

K+ -> 98% of total K+ is inside the cell (> 3000 mEq)

69
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serum K+ and pH have an _____ proportional relationship

inversely -> so K+ will increase when pH decreases (each 0.1 increase in pH will cause 0.6 mEq decrease in K+)

70
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T/F: K+ can be given as an IV push

FALSE

71
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what 2 lab values and 3 electroplates tend to increase with renal dysfunction?

Scr, BUN

K+, Mg, Phos

72
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which lab value will decrease with renal dysfunction?

bicarb (can't be as easily reabsorbed)

73
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what is one situation in which a high bicarb does not need to be treated to normalize it?

chronic compensated respiratory acidosis -> COPD

74
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what is BUN?

a measure of nitrogen in the blood

75
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T/F: BUN and Scr often increase together in the case of a kidney impairment

TRUE

76
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what may be the reason that BUN is increasing but Scr is not?

BUN is increasing on its own this may indicate GI bleed/dehydration

77
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what does it mean with the BUN:SCR ratio is >20:1?

PRERENAL AKI (azonatremia)

78
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T/F: hematocrit is 3X the hemoglobin level

TRUE

79
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what does a decreased H/H indicate?

anemia or blood loss

80
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what is the bodies physiologic response to laryngeal manipulation?

sympathetic stimulation -> HR, BP increases, ICP and IOP increases

81
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what is unusual about the response to laryngeal manipulation that can occur in children <1?

the can have a parasympathetic (vagal nerve) response

82
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what are the 3 major roles of sedatives in intubation?

1) induces unconsciousness rapidly to prevent awareness of paralysis

2) blunts the sympathetic response to laryngeal manipulation

3) enhance the effects of neuromuscular blockers

83
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what are the 4 common induction (sedatives) agents used in RSI?

1) etomidate

2) ketamine

3) propofol

4) midazolam

84
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when is etomidate typically first line induction agent for RSI?

1) hemodynamic instability (hypotension or hypertension)

2) head injury or ICP

etomidate is hemodynamically neutral

85
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when might ketamine be a more useful induction agent?

the the setting of RSI for asthma/bronchospasm since it has bronchodilator effects

86
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when to avoid ketamine as inaction agent in RSI

critically ill or septic patients that may have catecholamine depletion such ketamine can actually tank the BP in these patients

87
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3 ADRs of propofol

1) elevated triglyceride levels

2) hypotension

3) PRIS (when used long term and at high doses)

88
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which sedative has a long DOA and typically produces deeper sedation?

midazolam

89
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which sedatives for RSI have shorter DOAs?

1) etomidate (3-5 min)

2) propofol (3-6 min)

3) ketamine (10-20 min)

90
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what is the rationale for NMBAs in RSI?

NMBAs paralyze the patient to facilitate endotracheal intubation

91
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what are the two types of paralytic agents used in RSI?

1) depolarizing NMB -> succinylcholine

2) non depolarizing NMB -> rocuronium

92
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what are 8 major CI to using succinylcholine in a patient that needs RSI?

1) end stage real disease (ESRD)

2) hyperkalemia

3) malignant hyperthermia

4) Increased IOP or ICP

5) neuromuscular diseases

5) muscular dystrophy

6) multiple sclerosis

93
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what is an important thing to consider regarding the duration of sedatives and paralytics in RSI?

rocuronium DOA will outlast many of the induction agents so if using this one, it is important that we immediately start post intubation sedation protocols to maintain adequate sedation

94
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traumatic brain injury

alteration in brain function or evidence of brain pathology caused by external force

95
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primary brain injury

the initial insult -> the immediate damage caused by head trauma due to direct mechanical impact or penetration

96
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secondary brain injury

subsequent damage that develops overtime after the initial impact (reduced blood flow, swelling, inflammation)

97
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what are the 5 predictors of poor outcomes in patients with TBI?

1) elevated ICP

2) herniation

3) low GCS score (the lower = the more traumatic the injury is)

4) absent cough/gag reflex

5) over breathing the ventilator

98
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Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)

what ensures that adequate blood flow is going to the brain

99
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CPP equation

MAP - ICP

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what are two ways to increase the CPP?

increase MAP

decrease ICP