Final- Microbiology

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Last updated 4:51 AM on 5/5/26
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200 Terms

1
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Which scientist conducted early experiments using maggots and rotting meat to disprove spontaneous generation?

Francesco Redi.

2
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In the name Staphylococcus aureus, aureus is the

Species

3
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The human microbiome consists of which of the following?

all microbes present on or in the body

4
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The actively growing cell type of Chlamydia trachomatis is known as the elementary body.

False

5
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Which are the three currently accepted domains?


Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya

6
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Prokaryotes are classified into which domain(s)?

Domains Archaea and Bacteria

7
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The lipopolysaccharide molecule is an important component of the cell membranes of which organisms?

Gram‑negative bacteria

8
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How can primary and secondary syphilis be distinguished?

The presence of a hard chancre lesion indicates primary syphilis, whereas lesions of the skin and mucous membranes are found in secondary syphilis.

9
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Which of the following best describes Borrelia burgdorferi?

a spirochete that causes Lyme disease

10
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Which is the best description of the primary purpose of a phylogeny?

Phylogenies show evolutionary relatedness between organisms.

11
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The resolution of a microscope can be improved by changing the

wavelength of light.

12
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Cholera is best controlled by which of the following?

using good sanitation and hygiene practices to the greatest extent possible

13
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<p><span>The type of bacteria depicted in Figure 4.4 can be best described as…</span></p>

The type of bacteria depicted in Figure 4.4 can be best described as…

streptobacilli

14
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Which pathogen causes toxic shock syndrome?

Staphylococcus aureus

15
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Which of the following most specifically refers to positively charged dyes?

basic dyes

16
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Capsules and slime layers are examples of which type of structure?

glycocalycx

17
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Sporulation generally occurs under which of the following circumstances?

when conditions are unfavorable or there are insufficient nutrients

18
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Which scientist performed an elegant series of experiments that finally and definitively disproved the theory of spontaneous generation?

Louis Pasteur

19
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<p><span>Which drawing in Figure 4.1 represents a bacillus?</span></p>

Which drawing in Figure 4.1 represents a bacillus?

C

20
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Death from Clostridium botulinum is due to which of the following?

It paralyzes the muscles of the respiratory tract.

21
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<p><span>Which drawing in Figure 4.1 is streptococci?</span></p>

Which drawing in Figure 4.1 is streptococci?

D

22
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Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease is caused by...

a prion

23
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Which of the following is a helical bacterial shape?

spirochete

24
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<p><span>Figure 4.4 is an image of bacteria. It was likely obtained using which technique?</span></p>

Figure 4.4 is an image of bacteria. It was likely obtained using which technique?

Light microscopy

25
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The bacterial chromosome located in which of the following?

the nucleoid region

26
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The idea that life could appear from nonliving materials was called which of the following?

the theory of spontaneous generation

27
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In microscopy, the term resolution

refers to the ability to distinguish fine structure and detail in a specimen.

28
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Which of the following statements best describes what happens when a bacterial cell (2%NaCl) is placed in a solution containing 5% NaCl?

Water will move out of the cell.

29
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The use of phenol (carbolic acid) as a wound disinfectant was first practiced by

Lister.

30
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Viruses are not included in phylogenetic trees for which of the following reasons?

They are acellular and nonliving.

31
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How should a tick be removed?

It should be grasped gently with tweezers on the head, near its site of attachment, and pulled very carefully until it releases its grip.

32
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The Swedish botanist known for having developed an important biological classification system is which of the following people?

Carolus Linnaeus

33
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Normal microbiota are typically found in and on all the following body locations EXCEPT the

blood

34
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Colonization of the human body occurs…


at birth

35
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Which microscope is best used for observing the surfaces of intact cells and viruses?


scanning electron microscope

36
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The formal system for classifying and naming organisms was developed by

Carolus Linnaeus.

37
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Dyes are often used during microscopy to increase which of the following?

contrast

38
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Simple staining is often necessary to improve contrast in which microscope?

compound light microscope

39
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Clostridium botulinum and Clostridium tetani are similar in that...


both produce potent neurotoxins

40
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Which type of microscopy would work best for viewing internal cell structures?


transmission electron microscopy

41
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Which of the following is not a common cause of bacterial meningitis?

Staphylococcus aureus

42
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<p><span>Identify the following chemical reaction:&nbsp;</span></p>

Identify the following chemical reaction: 

dehydration synthesis reaction

43
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ATP donates energy through the transfer of a/an _____.

phosphate group

44
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You are performing a Gram stain on Gram-positive bacteria and you stop after the addition of the first dye. What is the appearance of the bacteria at this point?

purple

45
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The general steps in a multiplication cycle of an animal virus are

Attachment, penetration, uncoating, synthesis, assembly, and release

46
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The mechanism whereby an enveloped virus leaves a host cell is called


budding

47
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<p>Which of the following best describes an endergonic reaction?</p>

Which of the following best describes an endergonic reaction?


absorbs energy from the environment

48
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Which of the following refers to the term metabolism?

all the reactions in a cell or organism

49
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Which animals are the most common reservoirs for rabies?

raccoons, bats, skunks, and foxes

50
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Which of the following best describes catabolic pathways?

They break down large molecules into smaller components.

51
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Tinea corporis is also known as:

ringworm

52
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Which term specifically describes fatty acids that do not have any double bonds, triple bonds, or rings?

saturated

53
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Jaundice is an important symptom of which disease?

hepatitis

54
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The building blocks of polymers are called which of the following?

monomers

55
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Genital herpes is most commonly caused by

herpes simplex virus 2

56
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You are performing a Gram stain on Gram-negative bacteria and you stop after the decolorizer step. What is the appearance of the bacteria at this point?

colorless

57
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A virus's ability to infect an animal cell depends primarily upon the

presence of receptor sites on the cell membrane.

58
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Which of the following is the scientist is credited for first discovering viruses (specifically, tobacco mosaic virus)?

Dimitri Ivanovski

59
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What virus commonly undergoes both antigenic shifts and antigenic drifts?

Influenza

60
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Because enzymes affect the speed of chemical reactions without being consumed, they are referred to as:

catalysts.

61
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What statement regarding enzymes is incorrect?

They increase the activation energy required for a chemical reaction to occur.

62
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The definition of lysogeny is


phage DNA is incorporated into host cell DNA.

63
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Which describes the hydrocarbon tails in the plasma membrane?


hydrophobic

64
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You are performing a Gram stain on Gram-negative bacteria and you stop after the addition of the mordant. What is the appearance of the bacteria at this point?

purple

65
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Herpes can be passed from mother to fetus, causing neonatal herpes.

True

66
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Oncogenic viruses


cause tumors to develop.

67
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Viral envelopes are acquired during which of the following steps?

release

68
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What does it mean to say that HSV-1 is often latent?

It undergoes periods of inactivity when it resides in trigeminal nerve ganglia and does not cause symptoms.

69
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The relatively mild viral disease usually caused by human herpesvirus-6 is better known as:

roseola

70
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In a protein, which type of chemical linkage joins the amino acids?

peptide bonds

71
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Which of the following is a novel enzyme found in retroviruses?

reverse transcriptase

72
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<p><span>Which are the primary molecules making up plasma membranes in cells?</span></p>

Which are the primary molecules making up plasma membranes in cells?

lipids

73
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The sum of all chemical activities taking place in an organism is:


metabolism.

74
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<p>Which of the following is an inhibitor that blocks the substrate's ability to bind to an enzyme?</p>

Which of the following is an inhibitor that blocks the substrate's ability to bind to an enzyme?

a competitive inhibitor

75
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Which of the following statements is NOT true of lysogeny?

It causes lysis of host cells.

76
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In the lysogenic cycle of bacteriophages, the integrated phage genome is known as which of the following?

prophage

77
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Which of the following is mismatched?

Cellulose - eukaryote membranes

78
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<p><span>An endergonic reaction is one which __________.</span></p>

An endergonic reaction is one which __________.

requires energy to proceed

79
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An acellular entity composed of a small circular RNA molecule without a capsid and capable of replicating its genome is known as which of the following?

viroid

80
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The excision of the viral genome from the host chromosome is known as which of the following?

induction

81
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Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched?

bacteriostatic — kills vegetative bacterial cells

82
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Which of the following methods is used to preserve food by slowing the metabolic processes of foodborne microbes?

freezing

83
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Which method of microbial control introduces double-strand breaks into DNA?

ionizing radiation

84
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Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell

as naked DNA in solution.

85
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<p><span>Examine the disk-diffusion assay shown below. Which antimicrobial</span></p>

Examine the disk-diffusion assay shown below. Which antimicrobial

D

86
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Which of the following actions would be most clearly considered bacteriostatic rather than bactericidal?

placing a bacterial culture in the −80°C freezer

87
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C. perfringens is classified as which type of microorganism?

Obligate anaerobe

88
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Which phenolic compound has commonly been added to soap and raises concerns about selection for more antimicrobial-resistant bacteria?

triclosan

89
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The primary mode of Ebola transmission is:

Direct contact with infected body fluids

90
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DNA is constructed of

two strands of nucleotides running in an antiparallel configuration.

91
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According to the central dogma, which of the following represents the flow of genetic information in cells?

DNA to RNA to protein

92
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Which of the following is not an example of an organism's phenotype?

the DNA sequence of a cellular genome

93
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Which of the following correctly describes uracil and where is it found?

It is a nitrogenous base found in RNA only.

94
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EHEC differs from ETEC in that EHEC:

Produces shiga toxin

95
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Which type of microbes would most likely thrive in Utah's Great Salt Lake?

halophiles

96
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<p><span>In Figure 6.3, which tube shows the expected growth pattern for an obligate anaerobe?</span></p>

In Figure 6.3, which tube shows the expected growth pattern for an obligate anaerobe?

C

97
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Autoclaves are designed to kill which of the following heat-resistant microbes?

endospores

98
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Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation

transfers DNA horizontally, to nearby cells without those cells undergoing replication.

99
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The microbes in a ____________ are dangerous and exotic, posing a high risk of aerosol-transmitted infections. Infections caused by these microbes are frequently fatal and without treatment or vaccines.

BSL4

100
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Which of the following microbial control methods does not actually kill microbes or inhibit their growth but instead removes them physically from samples?

Filtration