Wounds Pt. 2 // AI-GENERATED!!

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Last updated 3:28 PM on 5/1/26
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45 Terms

1
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TRUE

True or False: The Photographic Wound Assessment Tool (PWAT) was adapted from the BWAT and can be used for telemedicine and electronic consultation.

2
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5

The Cardiff Wound Impact Schedule has 45 items using a _____-level Likert scale across 3 domains

3
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24

Sterile saline has a maximum use time of _____ hours once opened

4
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FALSE — Hydrogen peroxide is a cytotoxic agent that should be AVOIDED. It doesn't really do anything and will slow down healing if used longer than just to clean a wound immediately after injury

True or False: Hydrogen peroxide is a safe and effective wound cleanser for long-term use

5
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Hypochlorous Acid (HOCl)

_______ solution has a pH of 3.5 to 6.75, making it compatible with skin.

6
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FALSE — Betadine gets INACTIVATED within the wound bed, so it should be avoided as a wound cleanser.

True or False: Betadine is an effective wound cleanser because it remains active in the wound bed

7
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mechanical

Pulsed Lavage with Suction is a form of _____ debridement indicated for grossly infected or contaminated wounds with thick exudate.

8
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tunneling, undermining

A contraindication for pulsed lavage with suction is long ________ or _____

9
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Autolytic

_____ debridement is "Mother Nature's process" — it is selective but slow, and benefits from moist wound healing.

10
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FALSE — Enzymatic debridement is SELECTIVE. It involves topical application of an enzyme to break down necrotic tissue and is faster than autolytic debridement

True or False: Enzymatic debridement is non-selective and can damage healthy tissue.

11
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iodine

Enzymatic debridement should NOT be used with silver or _____ dressings.

12
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painful

Wet-to-dry dressings are considered old school and not standard of care because they are very _____

13
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FALSE — NO LONGER standard of care due to infection risk, uncontrolled pressures, and drying of skin

True or False: Whirlpool is currently considered the standard of care for mechanical debridement.

14
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22.5

Ultrasonic debridement uses a low frequency contact ultrasound at _____ kHz

15
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Selective debridement

________ uses sharp instruments such as scalpel, scissors, forceps, and curette

16
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2.0

Selective debridement should be used with caution when INR is between 1.0 and _____.

17
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3.0

Selective debridement is contraindicated when INR is greater than _____ or there is uncontrolled bleeding.

18
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TRUE

True or False: Biologic debridement, also known as maggot therapy, uses sterile medical fly larvae and is painless

19
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Nonhealing

Exudative

Red and bleeding granulation

Debris

Smell

The acronym NERDS represents the clinical signs of critical colonization:

20
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Size bigger

Temp increased

Os (probe to bone)

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Exudate/erythema/edema

Smell

The acronym STONES represents the clinical signs of deep infection:

21
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1.0 x 10⁶ / 1 million

The medical "gold" standard for diagnosing a wound infection is tissue biopsy with _____ colony forming organisms per 1 gram of tissue

22
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topical treatment, systemic treatment

Critical colonization (NERDS) is managed with _________ using antimicrobial dressings, while deep infection (STONES) requires __________ or surgical intervention

23
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TRUE

True or False: If there is no change in a wound after treating for bioburden, you should assume inflammation

24
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Silver

_____ is a broad spectrum antimicrobial dressing with concern for bacterial resistance, released from modern products over 3-7 days.

25
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Cadexomer

_____ iodine is a broad-spectrum antimicrobial effective against biofilms, with iodine encased in beads of starch

26
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FALSE — should NOT be combined with collagenase. The iodine would interfere with the enzymatic debridement activity

True or False: Cadexomer iodine can be safely combined with collagenase for enzymatic debridement.

27
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manuka

Sterilized _____ honey is a non-prescription antimicrobial dressing that also provides autolytic debridement and helps with wound odor.

28
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FALSE — Biofilm CANNOT be rinsed or wiped away. It must be physically removed by scraping, and treatment is disruption and prevention

True or False: Biofilm can form in 6-12 hours and can be easily wiped away with wound cleansing.

29
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much greater

The prevalence of Biofilm in chronic wounds is ________ than acute wounds

30
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FALSE — Biofilm does NOT respond to antibiotics because most bacteria in biofilm are senescent (not metabolically active)

True or False: Antibiotics are highly effective at treating biofilm because the bacteria are metabolically active.

31
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O2

When a wound dries out, cells desiccate and die, cytokines and nutrients denature or evaporate, and there is no diffusion of _____.

32
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granulation

A dry dressing sticks to dry _____ tissue, causing pain with removal.

33
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moist

Outcomes of _____ wound healing include faster closure, less scarring, lower infection risk, and less pain/cost/caregiver time

34
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hydrogel, impregnated gauze

For a dry wound, moisture-donating dressings such as _______ or ___________ should be selected.

35
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copious drainage

For a wound with _______, moisture-absorbing dressings such as calcium alginate, foams, or hydrofiber should be selected

36
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Hydrocolloids

_____ were the ORIGINAL advanced dressings, appropriate for minimal-to-moderate exudate on partial thickness or shallow full thickness wounds.

37
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FALSE — CONTRAINDICATED for highly exudating, infected, or undermining wounds, as well as for thin, fragile, or damaged periwound skin

True or False: Hydrocolloid dressings are appropriate for highly exudating, infected, or undermining wounds

38
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seaweed

Calcium alginate is a moisture-absorbing dressing derived from _____.

39
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fluffy/filled

When filling a wound with depth including tunnels and undermining, the dressing should be _____, not packed

40
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pack

The rule is: Don't _____ the wound, FILL the wound

41
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above

Hypergranulation tissue is granulation tissue that extends (above/below) the edge of the skin and must be removed.

42
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Negative Pressure Wound Therapy (NPWT)

_____________ works by removing extracellular debris and fluid, increasing perfusion, stabilizing the wound, active wound contraction, and increasing cell proliferation

43
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Atypical wounds

__________account for 5-20% of chronic wounds and show no healing with conventional care, with pain out of proportion to clinical presentation

44
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Bull’s Eye

A Brown Recluse spider bite characteristically has a "_____ _____" appearance with a visible puncture site

45
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FALSE — Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC) arises from epidermal KERATINOCYTES and forms malignant tumors.

True or False: Squamous Cell Carcinoma arises from basal layer cells of the epidermis and has low metastatic potential