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ABC STAMP LICOMARKER
What process is used for a standard Mental Status Examination?
Level 1
Which level of insight indicates a complete denial of illness?
Level 5
What level of insight is defined as true emotional insight about one's condition?
Hypothyroidism
What general medical condition presents with psychomotor retardation, cold intolerance, and elevated TSH?
Parathyroid adenoma
What disorder presents with anxiety symptoms that resolve after surgical excision and restoration of calcium levels?
Huntington's disease
In what neurodegenerative pathology might depression precede the onset of choreiform movements?
Pancreatic CA
What malignancy presents with depression symptoms before the detection of the cancer itself?
Auditory hallucinations
What is the most common perceptual disturbance in primary schizophrenia and psychotic depression?
Visual or tactile hallucinations
The presence of which symptoms should increase suspicion of an organic or medical cause of psychosis?
Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
What nutritional pathology is caused by Vitamin B1 or thiamine deficiency?
Pellagra
What disorder presents with psychotic symptoms due to Vitamin B3 or niacin deficiency?
Dysthymic disorder
What disorder presents with a prolonged depressed mood for more than two years?
Olanzapine, risperidone, and sulpiride
What atypical antipsychotic medications are preferred due to having fewer extrapyramidal side effects?
Strokes, Parkinson's, Huntington's, HIV, and Multiple Sclerosis
What five medical conditions are particularly common etiologies for depressive episodes?
Pseudodementia
What disorder presents with cognitive symptoms like brain fog and difficulty concentrating that mimic true dementia?
Unipolar depression
Which is more common: unipolar depression or bipolar disorder?
SSRIs, SNRIs, and NDRIs
What are the three main classes of medications used for Major Depressive Disorder?
Hypoxemia, electrolyte disturbances, and postictal states
What are three physiologic or metabolic causes of secondary mood disorders?
Caffeine intoxication
What disorder presents with diuresis, GI disturbances, and rambling thought after consuming more than 250 mg of a stimulant?
Pheochromocytoma
What specific endocrinopathy presents with anxiety symptoms due to adrenal dysfunction?
Parkinsonism
What disorder presents with sleep symptoms including frequent awakening and circadian rhythm disturbance?
Sundowning
What condition presents with confusion, pacing, and agitation in dementia patients during the late afternoon?
Kleine-Levin Syndrome
What disorder presents specifically with hypersomnia or oversleeping?
Zolpidem or Stilnox
What medication is the most commonly prescribed sedative-hypnotic for insomnia?
Sildenafil and tadalafil
What pharmacological medications are used for male erectile dysfunction?
Echolalia
What disorder presents with the involuntary repetition of words or phrases of another person?
Echopraxia
What disorder presents with the involuntary imitation of movements of another person?
Alzheimer's Type
What is the most common cause of dementia, accounting for 50 to 60 percent of cases?
Vascular Dementia
What disorder presents with an incrementally worsening course of cognitive decline due to vessel thrombosis or hemorrhage?
Dual diagnosis
What disorder presents when a psychiatric condition is caused by both a general medical condition and substance use?
Major Depressive Episode
What pathology presents with at least 5 symptoms for a minimum of 2 weeks according to core criteria?
Bipolar I Disorder
What disorder presents with a florid manic episode alternating with a major depressive episode?
Bipolar II Disorder
What disorder presents with a florid depressive episode and only hypomanic episodes?
Cyclothymia
What disorder presents as a milder form of Bipolar I where episodes are less noticeable but still cause suffering?
Dysthymia
What pathology is defined as a persistent low mood for at least two years?
Somatic Symptom Disorder
What disorder presents with distressing physical symptoms resulting in disruption of daily life for more than 6 months?
PAINS
What mnemonic diagnostic is done for the criteria of Somatic Symptom Disorder?
Illness Anxiety Disorder
What disorder presents with a preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness despite minimal symptoms?
DRIPS
What mnemonic diagnostic is done for the criteria of Illness Anxiety Disorder?
Conversion Disorder
What pathology presents with altered voluntary motor or sensory functions incompatible with medical findings?
MISSES GULPS
What mnemonic diagnostic is done for the features of Conversion Disorder?
La belle indifference
What symptom involves a paradoxical lack of concern shown by some patients with Conversion Disorder toward their deficits?
Anorexia Nervosa
What eating disorder presents with persistent intake restriction and an intense fear of gaining weight?
I FEAR LARD
What mnemonic diagnostic is used for the symptoms of Anorexia Nervosa?
Bulimia Nervosa
What eating disorder presents with recurrent binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors like vomiting?
A BINGE
What mnemonic diagnostic is used for the symptoms of Bulimia Nervosa?
Post-binge anguish
What pathology presents as a dysphoric state of guilt and disgust following a binge eating episode?
Gender Dysphoria
What disorder presents as an individual's affective or cognitive discontent with their assigned gender?
Adjustment Disorder
What disorder presents as a time-limited maladaptive response to a stressor occurring within 3 months of onset?
SAD BITS
What mnemonic diagnostic is used for the criteria of Adjustment Disorder?
Code White
What hospital diagnostic is done for alerting staff to a potentially violent or aggressive patient?
5-point restraint
What treatment covers the trunk, two wrists, and two legs of a patient?
4-point restraint
Which physical treatment is more commonly used in the Philippines for violent patients?
Prone
In what body position is physical restraint prohibited due to the risk of asphyxia?
Olanzapine ODT
What medication treatment melts in the mouth to calm agitated patients within seconds?
Paracetamol
What medication is the most common agent used for pharmaceutical overdosing in the Philippines?
Liquid Sosa or lye
What non-pharmaceutical agent presents with extreme tracheal and esophageal burns in overdose?
Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
What hypermetabolic pathology presents with lead pipe rigidity and high fever following dopamine antagonist use?
Serotonin Syndrome
What disorder presents with hyperreflexia, clonus, and mydriasis due to combining serotonergic agents with MAOIs?
Dantrolene
What medication treatment is used as the antidote for Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome?
Cyproheptadine
What medication treatment is the serotonin antagonist used for Serotonin Syndrome?
Amok
What local Tagalog idiom presents as a state of unreasonable rage?
Latah or Mali-mali
What folk illness presents as a startle reaction with offensive or sexual speech?
Koro
What context-bound disorder presents as the belief that the genitals will retract into the body?
Susto or Lanti
What folk illness presents as a fright response to nature like thunder or wind?
Usug
What mystical pathology presents as illness caused by contact with someone of strong life force?
GGT
What diagnostic is done for the most sensitive monitoring of alcohol abstinence?
CDT
What diagnostic is done to detect heavy drinking for at least a week, as it is elevated in 80 percent of cases?
Delirium Tremens
What pathology presents with gross tremor and hallucinations peaking at 5 days after stopping alcohol?
Flumazenil
What medication treatment is the competitive antagonist used for benzodiazepine overdose?
Conjunctival hyperemia
What physical symptom presents in the eyes during the cannabis toxidrome?
Crash period
What phase follows stimulant binge use, presenting with depression and intense craving?
Pinpoint pupils
What eye symptom is the hallmark of opioid intoxication?
Varenicline
What medication treatment is used as a nicotine receptor agonist for tobacco cessation?
CSTC loop
What neurocircuitry is the pathology responsible for executive function and impulse control?
Mesolimbic pathway
Which dopamine pathology is associated with reward and positive psychotic symptoms?
Mesocortical pathway
Which dopamine pathway is responsible for negative symptoms and cognitive deficits?
HPA axis
What axis presents with dysregulation during the stress response and cortisol release?
5-HT1A
Which receptor diagnostic acts as an autoreceptor to regulate firing rates?
5-HT2A
Which receptor pathology is excitatory and central to hallucinations?
D3
Which receptor has the highest affinity for dopamine and is a target for newer antipsychotics?
D4
Which rare receptor is the specific medication target of Clozapine?
Object permanence
What developmental event is the critical achievement of Piaget's sensorimotor stage?
Magical thinking
What preoperational symptom involves believing that two events occurring together cause one another?
Inductive reasoning
What formal operation diagnostic involves moving from the particular to the general?
Deductive reasoning
What formal operation diagnostic involves moving from the general to the particular?
Secure attachment
What attachment style presents with a child being confident in a caregiver's availability?
Anxious-avoidant attachment
What attachment style presents with an infant readily separating from a caregiver but avoiding contact upon reunion?
Anxious-resistant attachment
What attachment style presents with an infant separating reluctantly and showing ambivalence after reunion?
Disorganized-disoriented
What attachment style presents with contradictory features or a dazed appearance in an infant?
Law of Effect
What evolutionary principle states that behavior strength depends on environmental outcomes?
Classical conditioning
What learning event involves the association of a neutral stimulus with a psychologically significant event?
Operant conditioning
What learning event involves the association of a voluntary behavior with a consequence?
Mens rea
What legal term refers to the guilty mind or intent required for a crime?
Actus reus
What legal term refers to the criminal act itself?
Wild Beast Test
Which 1723 insanity standard required total deprivation of understanding?
M Naghten Test
Which 1843 insanity standard asks if the defendant knew the nature of their act or that it was wrong?
Irresistible Impulse Test
Which 1840 standard focuses on the inability to resist the impulse to commit a crime?
Durham Rule
Which 1870 rule states a crime is not accountable if it was the offspring of a mental illness?
ALI Test
Which 1955 standard uses a two-prong approach of cognitive and volitional capacity for insanity?