AP 2 Midterm

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Last updated 2:43 PM on 6/18/26
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132 Terms

1
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What is the function of the levator palpebrae superioris muscle?

opens the eye

2
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What actions are performed by the inferior oblique eye muscle?

eye rolls, looks superiorly and laterally

3
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What actions are performed by the superior oblique eye muscle?

eye rolls, looks inferiorly and laterally

4
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Which two bactericidal proteins are produced by tears?

lysozyme and IgA

5
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What action is performed when the palpebrae are opened then closed in succession?

blinking

6
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What eye structure is a non-vascularized, transparent, fibrous covering of the middle eye's outer surface which protects the eye and acts as an initial lens for focusing light into the eye?

cornea

7
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What eye structure is the central opening that allows differing amounts of light into the eye depending upon its size?

pupil

8
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Which muscles control enlarging pupil size in response to lower light levels? 

pupillary dilator muscles

9
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Which muscles control decreasing pupil size in response to brighter light levels? 

 

pupillary constrictor muscles

10
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Which pupillary reflex is assessed when light is shined into the eye to see how the pupil responds?

 

direct response

11
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Which pupillary reflex assesses how the eye not being tested responds to differing amounts of light shined into the eye being tested?

consensual response

12
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True or False? A normal pupillary reflex direct response to light shined into the eye is pupil dilation and pupil constriction occurs when light is stopped from shining into the eye.

false

13
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What structures comprise the fibrous layer of the eye?

 

sclera and cornea

14
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Which eye layer contains the iris, choroid, and ciliary body?

 

vascular layer

15
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Which eye layer is the most deep?

retinal layer

16
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What area within the macula contains the highest concentration of cones?

 

fovea centralis

17
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Name the area where the optic nerve originates. 

optic disc

18
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In addition to vitreous humor, what is vitreous body composed of?

 

collagen fibers and proteoglycans

19
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Where would you find vitreous body?

 

posterior cavity of the eye

20
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Where would you find aqueous humor?

 

anterior cavity of the eye

21
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How do you check for pupillary accommodation?

 

put an object (penlight or finger) in front of the patient and slowly move it toward the patients face

22
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Describe how an abnormal direct pupillary response appears when the light is shined into the eye.

 

absence or lesser constriction of pupil

23
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Describe how to detect the consensual response of the pupils.

 

shine light in one eye and then see if the other eye responds the same way

24
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Describe how to detect the direct response of the pupil.

 

shine light into one eye to see how that pupil responds

25
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Name the photoreceptor cells.

 

rods and cones

26
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Name three types of cones.

 

blue, green, and red

27
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Light information is transmitted from photoreceptors to ____________.

 

bipolar cells

28
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Axons of which cells make up the optic nerve?

 

ganglion cells

29
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Which photoreceptors are mainly used in low light conditions?

rods

30
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The hormone ADH is produced by the ________ and is released from the ________.

 

hypothalamus; posterior pituitary

31
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TSH is produced by the ____________, and ACTH is produced by the ____________.

 

anterior pituitary/anterior pituitary

32
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The hormone ADH affects the target organ, the ___________, while the hormone ACTH affects the target organ, the _________.

 

kidney; adrenal cortex

33
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The hypothalamus regulates the release of anterior pituitary hormones by releasing certain _________ and __________ hormones.

 

inhibiting; releasing

34
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When autonomic centers in the hypothalamus are stimulated by the sympathetic division of the ANS, it directly signals the ____________ to produce epinephrine and norepinephrine.

 

adrenal medulla

35
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The production of T3 and T4 depends upon which two molecules? 

 

tyrosine and iodide ions

36
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Which two hormones produced by the adrenal medulla can also act as neurotransmitters?

 

E and NE

37
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Mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, and androgens are produced by the ___________.

 

adrenal cortex

38
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Name two hormones produced by pancreatic islets that play a critical role in blood glucose homeostasis.

 

insulin and glucagon

39
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The underproduction of glucocorticoids (GCs) is the cause of _____________ and the overproduction of GCs is the cause of ______________.

 

Addison disease/Cushing disease

40
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The overproduction of GH is the cause of ___________, and the overproduction of _________ and _________ causes pheochromocytoma.

 

acromegaly, E and NE

41
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Which of the following endocrine malfunction is NOT correctly paired to the condition it produces?

 

underproduction of insulin- diabetes insipidus

42
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The medical term for high blood sugar levels is _______________.

hyperglycemia

43
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When blood sugar levels are elevated, what specific sugar molecule is being referring to?

glucose

44
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Certain medications can cause drug-induced diabetes. It is most commonly associate with a group of drugs called ______________, that function to decrease inflammation in the body.

glucocorticoids

45
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Diabetes associated with pregnancy is called _______________ diabetes.

 

gestational

46
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The type of diabetes associated with inadequate production of insulin due to an autoimmune disorder and usually develops in children and young adults is called

 

Type I diabetes mellitus

47
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The hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system is a network of capillaries between the:

 

hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary

48
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What type of hormone do corticotrophs produce? What type of hormone do somatotrophs produce?

 

ACTH; GH

49
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Chronic psychological stress has been shown to lead to hypersecretion of CRH. This will ultimately affect the function of:

 

the adrenal cortex

50
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Which of these hormones is not produced by the adrenal cortex?

norepinephrine

51
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Diuretics that block the effects of aldosterone are called aldosterone antagonists. Predict the effect of these drugs:

 

decreased blood pressure

52
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Long-term administration of corticosteroids, which are synthetic cortisol derivatives, can result in symptoms consistent with cortisol hypersecretion. Which of these could be a possible symptom?

hyperglycemia

53
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The synthesis of new glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors is called:

gluconeogenesis

54
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A pheochromocytoma is a tumor of the adrenal medulla. It will result in the hypersecretion of:

epinephrine

55
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The normal hematocrit of a male is 46 and the normal hematocrit of a female is 42. What factor primarily accounts for the gender difference in normal hematocrit values?

 

male androgens stimulate RBC production, while female estrogens do not

56
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Plasma proteins constitute ~7% of the blood plasma volume. Which plasma protein is most abundant in the blood?

albumins

57
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What common blood test can provide information about the level of formed elements a person has?

hematocrit

58
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Which organ synthesizes and releases more than 90% of plasma proteins?

liver

59
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Immunoglobulins protect the body by attacking foreign proteins and pathogens. Another name for immunoglobulin is

antibody

60
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Plasma constitutes ~55% of the volume of blood. What molecule makes up most of the plasma volume?

water

61
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The iron-containing molecule that is part of the hemoglobin molecule is called __________.

heme

62
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Which formed element functions to transport oxygen from the lungs to the tissues, and carbon dioxide from tissues to the lungs?

erythrocytes

63
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What type of condition is suspected if a patient has an abnormally low reticulocyte count?

 

diminished erythropoiesis

64
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What type of condition would be suspected if a patient’s blood test results are abnormally low for hematocrit, hemoglobin concentration, and RBC count?

anemia

65
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Which WBC functions to promote inflammation by entering damaged tissues and releasing histamine?

basophil

66
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Which WBC increases during parasitic infections and phagocytizes antibody-labeled materials?

eosinophil

67
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WBCs called granulocytes have specialized secretory vesicles called granules that contain cytotoxic, antimicrobial or other molecular substances. These molecules are released by the cells in a process known as ____________ which aids in the body’s non-specific immunity (=innate immunity).

 

degranulation

68
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_________ are small membrane-bound cell fragments that contain enzymes and other substances important for blood clotting

platelets

69
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All of the formed elements originate from hematopoietic stem cells called ___________ which are found in the red bone marrow of certain bones.

hemocytoblast

70
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Myeloid stem cells will differentiate into certain formed elements based on the chemical signals that they receive. When influenced by the hormone, erythropoietin (EPO), RBCs will form in a process called ______________.

erythropoiesis

71
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Myeloid stem cells will differentiate into certain formed elements based on the chemical signals that they receive. When they are influenced by the hormone thrombopoietin, they will differentiate into _______________ which will fragment and form thrombocytes.

megakaryocytes

72
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What is the blood type of an individual who has A, B, and D RBC surface antigens, but does NOT have anti-A or anti-B antibodies?

AB+

73
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What is the blood type of an individual who does NOT have A, B, and D RBC surface antigens, but does have anti-A and anti-B antibodies?

O-

74
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When an individual receives an incompatible blood type, it can cause an acute hemolytic reaction. What is the end result of an acute hemolytic reaction?

 

destruction of RBCs

75
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What type of blood can an individual with “B” blood safely receive in a blood transfusion?

B or O

76
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What type of blood can an individual with “O” blood safely receive in a blood transfusion?

O only

77
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Sensitization of a Rh- mother carrying her first Rh+ can be prevented if she is administered a drug called ___________.

RhoGam

78
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What type of white blood cell is usually elevated in a patient with a bacterial infection?

neutrophils

79
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A CBC is performed to examine the formed elements in a patient's blood. What does CBC stand for?

 

complete blood count

80
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Which plasma proteins maintain the osmotic pressure of plasma?

albumins

81
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Blood is a fluid _________________.

 

connective tissue

82
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Which plasma protein is involved in the process of blood clotting?

fibrinogen

83
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What type of white blood cell is usually elevated in patients with parasitic infections?

eosinophils

84
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True or False? Blood is composed of plasma and formed elements.

True

85
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Which formed element is the most numerous in blood?

 

red blood cells

86
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What type of white blood cell is usually elevated in a patient with a viral infection?

lymphocytes

87
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Red blood cell membranes have

 

agglutinogens that specify that person’s blood type.

88
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Which of the following statements about blood types is correct?

 

a person with Type O blood has two recessive alleles and has neither the type A or Type B antigen.

89
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Antibodies to the A and B antigens are

 

preformed in blood plasma.

90
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True or False? A healthy male patient had his blood typed and it was determined that he has B- blood. We know from his blood type that he has anti-A antibodies and anti-D (anti-Rh) antibodies in his plasma.

false

91
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If a patient’s blood type is AB-, what would the appearance of the A, B, and Rh samples?

 

A clumped, B clumped, Rh unclumped

92
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Why are individuals with AB+ blood type known as universal recipients for blood transfusions?

 

They have both A and B antigens on the surface of their RBCs, and their blood serum does not contain antibodies against A, B, or Rh antigens.

93
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To determine an individual’s blood type, drops of the blood sample are mixed

 

separately with antiserum containing antibodies that recognize either type A antigens, type B antigens, or Rh antigens.

94
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ABO and Rh agglutinogens

 

can cause the most vigorous and potentially fatal transfusion reactions.

95
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If a carbohydrate is attached to a phospholipid in the plasma membrane, this structure is called a(n) ____________.

 

glycolipid

96
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If a carbohydrate is attached to a protein in the plasma membrane, this structure is called a(n) ____________.

glycoprotein

97
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The clumping of cell-bound antigens and antibodies in a lattice is called ____________.

agglutination

98
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ABO blood types are determined by the presence or absence of glycoproteins called __________.

antigens

99
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ABO glycoproteins are located on the outer surface of the _____________.

 

red blood cell

100
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Proteins that bind to specific antigens are called _____________.

antibodies