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What is the function of the levator palpebrae superioris muscle?
opens the eye
What actions are performed by the inferior oblique eye muscle?
eye rolls, looks superiorly and laterally
What actions are performed by the superior oblique eye muscle?
eye rolls, looks inferiorly and laterally
Which two bactericidal proteins are produced by tears?
lysozyme and IgA
What action is performed when the palpebrae are opened then closed in succession?
blinking
What eye structure is a non-vascularized, transparent, fibrous covering of the middle eye's outer surface which protects the eye and acts as an initial lens for focusing light into the eye?
cornea
What eye structure is the central opening that allows differing amounts of light into the eye depending upon its size?
pupil
Which muscles control enlarging pupil size in response to lower light levels?
pupillary dilator muscles
Which muscles control decreasing pupil size in response to brighter light levels?
pupillary constrictor muscles
Which pupillary reflex is assessed when light is shined into the eye to see how the pupil responds?
direct response
Which pupillary reflex assesses how the eye not being tested responds to differing amounts of light shined into the eye being tested?
consensual response
True or False? A normal pupillary reflex direct response to light shined into the eye is pupil dilation and pupil constriction occurs when light is stopped from shining into the eye.
false
What structures comprise the fibrous layer of the eye?
sclera and cornea
Which eye layer contains the iris, choroid, and ciliary body?
vascular layer
Which eye layer is the most deep?
retinal layer
What area within the macula contains the highest concentration of cones?
fovea centralis
Name the area where the optic nerve originates.
optic disc
In addition to vitreous humor, what is vitreous body composed of?
collagen fibers and proteoglycans
Where would you find vitreous body?
posterior cavity of the eye
Where would you find aqueous humor?
anterior cavity of the eye
How do you check for pupillary accommodation?
put an object (penlight or finger) in front of the patient and slowly move it toward the patients face
Describe how an abnormal direct pupillary response appears when the light is shined into the eye.
absence or lesser constriction of pupil
Describe how to detect the consensual response of the pupils.
shine light in one eye and then see if the other eye responds the same way
Describe how to detect the direct response of the pupil.
shine light into one eye to see how that pupil responds
Name the photoreceptor cells.
rods and cones
Name three types of cones.
blue, green, and red
Light information is transmitted from photoreceptors to ____________.
bipolar cells
Axons of which cells make up the optic nerve?
ganglion cells
Which photoreceptors are mainly used in low light conditions?
rods
The hormone ADH is produced by the ________ and is released from the ________.
hypothalamus; posterior pituitary
TSH is produced by the ____________, and ACTH is produced by the ____________.
anterior pituitary/anterior pituitary
The hormone ADH affects the target organ, the ___________, while the hormone ACTH affects the target organ, the _________.
kidney; adrenal cortex
The hypothalamus regulates the release of anterior pituitary hormones by releasing certain _________ and __________ hormones.
inhibiting; releasing
When autonomic centers in the hypothalamus are stimulated by the sympathetic division of the ANS, it directly signals the ____________ to produce epinephrine and norepinephrine.
adrenal medulla
The production of T3 and T4 depends upon which two molecules?
tyrosine and iodide ions
Which two hormones produced by the adrenal medulla can also act as neurotransmitters?
E and NE
Mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, and androgens are produced by the ___________.
adrenal cortex
Name two hormones produced by pancreatic islets that play a critical role in blood glucose homeostasis.
insulin and glucagon
The underproduction of glucocorticoids (GCs) is the cause of _____________ and the overproduction of GCs is the cause of ______________.
Addison disease/Cushing disease
The overproduction of GH is the cause of ___________, and the overproduction of _________ and _________ causes pheochromocytoma.
acromegaly, E and NE
Which of the following endocrine malfunction is NOT correctly paired to the condition it produces?
underproduction of insulin- diabetes insipidus
The medical term for high blood sugar levels is _______________.
hyperglycemia
When blood sugar levels are elevated, what specific sugar molecule is being referring to?
glucose
Certain medications can cause drug-induced diabetes. It is most commonly associate with a group of drugs called ______________, that function to decrease inflammation in the body.
glucocorticoids
Diabetes associated with pregnancy is called _______________ diabetes.
gestational
The type of diabetes associated with inadequate production of insulin due to an autoimmune disorder and usually develops in children and young adults is called
Type I diabetes mellitus
The hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system is a network of capillaries between the:
hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary
What type of hormone do corticotrophs produce? What type of hormone do somatotrophs produce?
ACTH; GH
Chronic psychological stress has been shown to lead to hypersecretion of CRH. This will ultimately affect the function of:
the adrenal cortex
Which of these hormones is not produced by the adrenal cortex?
norepinephrine
Diuretics that block the effects of aldosterone are called aldosterone antagonists. Predict the effect of these drugs:
decreased blood pressure
Long-term administration of corticosteroids, which are synthetic cortisol derivatives, can result in symptoms consistent with cortisol hypersecretion. Which of these could be a possible symptom?
hyperglycemia
The synthesis of new glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors is called:
gluconeogenesis
A pheochromocytoma is a tumor of the adrenal medulla. It will result in the hypersecretion of:
epinephrine
The normal hematocrit of a male is 46 and the normal hematocrit of a female is 42. What factor primarily accounts for the gender difference in normal hematocrit values?
male androgens stimulate RBC production, while female estrogens do not
Plasma proteins constitute ~7% of the blood plasma volume. Which plasma protein is most abundant in the blood?
albumins
What common blood test can provide information about the level of formed elements a person has?
hematocrit
Which organ synthesizes and releases more than 90% of plasma proteins?
liver
Immunoglobulins protect the body by attacking foreign proteins and pathogens. Another name for immunoglobulin is
antibody
Plasma constitutes ~55% of the volume of blood. What molecule makes up most of the plasma volume?
water
The iron-containing molecule that is part of the hemoglobin molecule is called __________.
heme
Which formed element functions to transport oxygen from the lungs to the tissues, and carbon dioxide from tissues to the lungs?
erythrocytes
What type of condition is suspected if a patient has an abnormally low reticulocyte count?
diminished erythropoiesis
What type of condition would be suspected if a patient’s blood test results are abnormally low for hematocrit, hemoglobin concentration, and RBC count?
anemia
Which WBC functions to promote inflammation by entering damaged tissues and releasing histamine?
basophil
Which WBC increases during parasitic infections and phagocytizes antibody-labeled materials?
eosinophil
WBCs called granulocytes have specialized secretory vesicles called granules that contain cytotoxic, antimicrobial or other molecular substances. These molecules are released by the cells in a process known as ____________ which aids in the body’s non-specific immunity (=innate immunity).
degranulation
_________ are small membrane-bound cell fragments that contain enzymes and other substances important for blood clotting
platelets
All of the formed elements originate from hematopoietic stem cells called ___________ which are found in the red bone marrow of certain bones.
hemocytoblast
Myeloid stem cells will differentiate into certain formed elements based on the chemical signals that they receive. When influenced by the hormone, erythropoietin (EPO), RBCs will form in a process called ______________.
erythropoiesis
Myeloid stem cells will differentiate into certain formed elements based on the chemical signals that they receive. When they are influenced by the hormone thrombopoietin, they will differentiate into _______________ which will fragment and form thrombocytes.
megakaryocytes
What is the blood type of an individual who has A, B, and D RBC surface antigens, but does NOT have anti-A or anti-B antibodies?
AB+
What is the blood type of an individual who does NOT have A, B, and D RBC surface antigens, but does have anti-A and anti-B antibodies?
O-
When an individual receives an incompatible blood type, it can cause an acute hemolytic reaction. What is the end result of an acute hemolytic reaction?
destruction of RBCs
What type of blood can an individual with “B” blood safely receive in a blood transfusion?
B or O
What type of blood can an individual with “O” blood safely receive in a blood transfusion?
O only
Sensitization of a Rh- mother carrying her first Rh+ can be prevented if she is administered a drug called ___________.
RhoGam
What type of white blood cell is usually elevated in a patient with a bacterial infection?
neutrophils
A CBC is performed to examine the formed elements in a patient's blood. What does CBC stand for?
complete blood count
Which plasma proteins maintain the osmotic pressure of plasma?
albumins
Blood is a fluid _________________.
connective tissue
Which plasma protein is involved in the process of blood clotting?
fibrinogen
What type of white blood cell is usually elevated in patients with parasitic infections?
eosinophils
True or False? Blood is composed of plasma and formed elements.
True
Which formed element is the most numerous in blood?
red blood cells
What type of white blood cell is usually elevated in a patient with a viral infection?
lymphocytes
Red blood cell membranes have
agglutinogens that specify that person’s blood type.
Which of the following statements about blood types is correct?
a person with Type O blood has two recessive alleles and has neither the type A or Type B antigen.
Antibodies to the A and B antigens are
preformed in blood plasma.
True or False? A healthy male patient had his blood typed and it was determined that he has B- blood. We know from his blood type that he has anti-A antibodies and anti-D (anti-Rh) antibodies in his plasma.
false
If a patient’s blood type is AB-, what would the appearance of the A, B, and Rh samples?
A clumped, B clumped, Rh unclumped
Why are individuals with AB+ blood type known as universal recipients for blood transfusions?
They have both A and B antigens on the surface of their RBCs, and their blood serum does not contain antibodies against A, B, or Rh antigens.
To determine an individual’s blood type, drops of the blood sample are mixed
separately with antiserum containing antibodies that recognize either type A antigens, type B antigens, or Rh antigens.
ABO and Rh agglutinogens
can cause the most vigorous and potentially fatal transfusion reactions.
If a carbohydrate is attached to a phospholipid in the plasma membrane, this structure is called a(n) ____________.
glycolipid
If a carbohydrate is attached to a protein in the plasma membrane, this structure is called a(n) ____________.
glycoprotein
The clumping of cell-bound antigens and antibodies in a lattice is called ____________.
agglutination
ABO blood types are determined by the presence or absence of glycoproteins called __________.
antigens
ABO glycoproteins are located on the outer surface of the _____________.
red blood cell
Proteins that bind to specific antigens are called _____________.
antibodies