Microiology Exam 4

A young child presented with gastrointestinal symptoms with no history of travel. The family had eaten at a local restaurant the day before, but no one else was displaying any symptoms. The child attends school and spends about 2 hours at an afterschool program prior to the parents picking the child up at the end of the day. The physician orders an EIA for Giardia and Cryptosporidium, suspecting a case of aftercare associated infection. The EIA comes back negative. What is the most likely reason for a negative EIA on the stool sample?

1. early in the infection and low numbers of organisms in the sample

2. technical error in the laboratory, reading the test too early

3.failure to allow the kit to warm up to room temperature prior to testing.

4. None of the answers provide a reasonable explanation

early in the infection and low numbers of organisms in the sample

Selenite broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?

1. Evaluation of general microbiota and predominant species

2. Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others

3. Inhibition of normal microbiota and selection of enteric pathogens

4. Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others

Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others

Which of the following Campylobacter species is one of the leading causes of bacterial diarrhea worldwide?

1. C. fetus ss fetus

2. C. lardis

3. C. sputorum ss sputorum

4. C. pylori

5. C. jejuni

C. jejuni

MacConkey agar serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?

1. Evaluation of general microbiota and predominant species

2. Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others

3. Inhibition of normal microbiota and selection of enteric pathogens

4. Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others

Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others

An elderly patient presented with diarrhea, however the stool culture demonstrated no growth of apparent pathogens. The patient has been taken antibiotics for a respiratory infection for approximately five days. Based on the patient's clinical presentation, the next steps would be:

1. no course of action is necessary, the patient likely just had an unformed stool.

2. the patient may have a case of C. difficile infection, a toxin assay or NAAT should be performed.

3. the patient's routine stool culture should be repeated.

4. a new sample should be collected as it may have been transported incorrectly.

the patient may have a case of C. difficile infection, a toxin assay or NAAT should be performed.

A green colony with a black center was isolated and presumptively identified as a Salmonella spp. The organism was serotyped with polyvalent antisera; however, the antisera tested negative for all antigens. What is the next course of action?

1. Regrow the organism on sheep blood agar, and serotype again the next day.

2. Make a suspension, and heat to 100°C for 10 minutes.

3. Make a suspension, and place on ice for 30 minutes.

4. Report the organism out as a nontypable Salmonella spp.

Make a suspension, and heat to 100°C for 10 minutes.

A green colony with a black center is isolated on HE agar from a stool specimen. It is most likely which organism?

1. E. coli

2. Salmonella spp.

3. Shigella spp.

4. K. pneumoniae

Salmonella spp.

Which of the following statements best describes the habitats of Vibrio spp., Aeromonas spp., Plesiomonas shigelloides, and Chromobacterium violaceum?

1. Habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.

2. Habitats are limited to the gastrointestinal tract.

3. Habitats are mostly soil and water environment.

4. Habitats are limited mostly to soil.

Habitats are mostly soil and water environment.

The primary habitat for Vibrio spp. is:

1. freshwater.

2. the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.

3. brackish or marine water.

4. the soil and water environment.

brackish or marine water.

Which organisms should be used to perform quality control on hippurate reagent?

1. C. coli and Campylobacter concisus

2. Campylobacter curvus and Campylobacter hyointestinalis

3 .C. jejuni subsp. jejuni and C. jejuni subsp. doylei

4. C. jejuni subsp. jejuni and Campylobacter coli

C. jejuni subsp. jejuni and Campylobacter coli

Antimicrobial therapy for H. pylori infection consists of:

1. penicillin, gentamycin, and imipenem.

2. clindamycin, ceftriazone, and carbapenem.

3. A proton pump inhibitor, clarithromycin, and metronidazole.

4. azithromycin alone.

A proton pump inhibitor, clarithromycin, and metronidazole.

Ensuring that all foods derived from animal sources are thoroughly cooked, all milk is pasteurized, and all drinking water is chlorinated are ways to avoid becoming infected with:

1. Helicobacter.

2. Arcobacter.

3. Enterobacter.

4. Campylobacter

Campylobacter

The ethanol shock or heat shock test will separate which two bacteria?

1. C. perfringens and Clostridium ramosum

2. Clostridium and Bifidobacterium

3. Actinomyces and Bifidobacterium

4. Eubacterium and Eggerthella

Clostridium and Bifidobacterium

The primary plating medium used to select out Clostridia spp. would be:

1. anaerobic blood agar.

2. laked kanamycin-vancomycin (LKV) blood agar.

3. phenylethyl alcohol agar (PEA).

4. thioglycollate

phenylethyl alcohol agar (PEA).

The transport medium that best preserves the viability of most intestinal bacterial pathogens is:

1. buffered glycerol.

2. rectal culture swab.

3. Cary-Blair.

4. Campylobacter thioglycollate broth.

Cary-Blair.

A patient presented to the primary care provider with blood diarrhea along with abdominal cramping, vomiting, and fever. The patient indicated that this began about 9 hours after eating. What is the most likely etiologic agent associated with this patient’s condition?

1. Staphylococcus food poisoning

2. Salmonella spp.

3. Shigella spp.

4. Clostridium food poisoning

Shigella spp.

An organism that appears red with a black center on XLD agar is lactose-_____ and H2S-_____.

1. positive; positive

2. positive; negative

3. negative; positive

4. negative; negative

negative; positive

A patient bitten by a flea developed a painful bubo at the site of the bite. The drug of choice for this organism is:

1. ampicillin.

2. gentamycin.

3. streptomycin.

4. ciprofloxacin.

streptomycin

The drug of choice to treat patients with V. cholerae is:

1. tetracycline.

2. ceftazidime.

3. imipenem.

4. aztreonam

tetracycline

V. cholerae and Vibrio alginolyticus appear what color on TCBS agar?

1. Green

2. Black

3. Yellow

4. Blue

Yellow

Curved, microaerophilic, gram-negative rods, with most species having strong urease activity and the majority of which colonize mammalian stomachs or intestines, describe which group of bacteria?

1. Campylobacter

2. Helicobacter

3. Arcobacter

4. Enterobacter

Helicobacter

Campylobacter jejuni subsp. jejuni grows best at what conditions?

A. 37°C under microaerobic conditions

B. 37°C under anaerobic conditions

C. 42°C under microaerobic conditions

D. 42°C under anaerobic conditions

42°C under microaerobic conditions

Which of these Campylobacter species is a blood-borne pathogen?

1. C. fetus ss fetus

2. C. lardis

3. C. sputorum ss sputorum

4. C. pylori

5. C. jejuni

C. fetus ss fetus

A diabetic patient has developed gas gangrene of the right foot. The most likely anaerobe causing this infection is:

1. Clostridium tetani.

2. Clostridium perfringens.

3. Clostridium botulinum.

4. Clostridium difficile.

Clostridium perfringens.

Fecal cultures to isolate Clostridium difficile are plated on:

1. anaerobic blood agar.

2. LKV blood agar.

3. aerobic 5% sheep blood agar.

4. cycloserine cefoxitin fructose agar (CCFA).

cycloserine cefoxitin fructose agar (CCFA).

Gram-negative broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?

1. Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others

2. Inhibition of normal microbiota and selection of enteric pathogens

3. Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others

4. Evaluation of general microbiota and predominant species

Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others

XLD agar serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?

1. Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others

2. Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others

3. Inhibition of normal microbiota and selection of enteric pathogens

4. Evaluation of general microbiota and predominant species

Inhibition of normal microbiota and selection of enteric pathogens

What is the etiologic (causative) agent of typhoid fever? Humans are the only reservoir.

1. Campylobacter jejuni

2. Salmonella typhi

3. Yersinia pestis

4. Vibrio cholerae

5. Salmonella typhimurium

Salmonella typhi

The cause of gastritis and gastric ulcers:

1. Proteus mirabilis

2. Campylobacter jejuni

3. Campylobacter fetus

4. Helicobacter pylori

Helicobacter pylori

Colony morphology with characteristic ‘swarming’:

1. Helicobacter pylori

2. Campylobacter fetus

3. Campylobacter jejuni

4. Proteus mirabilis

Proteus mirabilis

A community hospital microbiology laboratory is processing significant numbers of stool cultures because of an outbreak of diarrhea following heavy rains and flooding in the county. A media that should be incorporated in the plating protocol is:

1. Mannitol salt agar for Enterococcus species

2. Thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose for Vibrio species (TCBS)

3. Colistin nalidixic acid for Listeria

4. MacConkey agar with sorbitol for Campylobacter

Thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose for Vibrio species (TCBS)

A vibriostatic test using 0/129 (2,4-diamino-6,7-diisopropylpteridine)–impregnated disks differentiates vibrio cells, which are susceptible, and _________, which are resistant.

1. Plesiomonas spp.

2. Chromobacterium spp.

3. Enterobacteriaceae

4. aeromonads

aeromonads

Isolated from the blood of immunosuppressed patients:

1. Proteus mirabilis

2. Campylobacter jejuni

3. Campylobacter fetus

4. Helicobacter pylori

Campylobacter fetus

Which of the following genes may attribute to the virulence of H. pylori by encoding for outer membrane proteins that mediate adherence to a specific blood group antigen on the surface of gastric epithelial cells?

1. iceA

2. babA

3. cagA

4. vacA

babA

The leading cause of bacterial diarrhea worldwide:

1. Campylobacter jejuni

2. Helicobacter pylori

3. Proteus mirabilis

4. Campylobacter fetus

Campylobacter jejuni

The normal microbiota of the adult large bowel consists predominantly of:

1. anaerobic species.

2. Enterobacterales.

3. Staphylococcus.

4. Enterococcus

anaerobic species.

Which of these statements about Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) is true?

1. clinically similar to shigellosis (penetration of the mucosa and invasion of epithelial cells)

2. associated with hospital-acquired infantile diarrhea

3. common cause of travelers diarrhea

4. responsible for hemorrhagic colitis

5. responsible for hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)

common cause of travelers diarrhea

If an organism were a glucose and lactose fermenter, the LIA reaction would be:

1. K/K.

2. A/A.

3. K/A.

4. A/K.

A/A

Transmission of Aeromonas spp. to humans is by:

1. ingestion of contaminated seafood or water.

2. close contact with carriers of the organism.

3. inhalation of contaminated air.

4. exposure of disrupted skin and mucosal surfaces to contaminated animal hides.

ingestion of contaminated seafood or water.

The selective medium, thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose (TCBS) agar, is especially formulated for isolating what pathogen from stool cultures?

1. Vibrio

2. Shigella

3. Salmonella

4. Plesiomonas

Vibrio

A gram-negative, spiral-shaped organism is isolated from a stool sample that was hippurate-positive, catalase-positive, susceptible to nalidixic acid, and resistant to cephalothin. The organism can be identified as:

1. C. fetus subsp. fetus.

2. C. jejuni subsp. doylei.

3. C. jejuni subsp. jejuni.

4. Campylobacter coli.

C. jejuni subsp. jejuni.

Virulence determinants of H. pylori include:

1. exotoxins.

2. urease enzyme.

3. proteases.

4. hemolysins.

urease enzyme.

Which Clostridium spp. Causes pseudomembranous colitis or antibiotic-associated colitis?

1. C. perfringens

2. C. difficile

3. C. sporogenes

4. C. ramosum

C. difficile

Sheep blood agar serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?

1. Inhibition of normal microbiota and selection of enteric pathogens

2. Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others

3. Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others

4. Evaluation of general microbiota and predominant species

Evaluation of general microbiota and predominant species

Campylobacter thioglycollate broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?

1. Evaluation of general microbiota and predominant species

2. Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others

3. Inhibition of normal microbiota and selection of enteric pathogens

4. Enrichment for Campylobacter spp.

Enrichment for Campylobacter spp.

Of the following bacterial species, which is associated with a serious diarrheal illness with high mortality rates among some populations?

1. Shigella spp.

2. Salmonella spp.

3. E. coli

4. Vibrio spp.

E. coli

E. coli can produce a toxin similar to S. dysenteriae and can cause hemorrhagic colitis. What other organ does it affect?

1. Kidney

2. Lungs

3. Liver

4. Heart

Kidney

Profuse watery diarrhea (i.e., "rice water stools"), leading to dramatic fluid loss, severe dehydration, and hypotension that frequently leads to death, is the hallmark of which toxin activity?

1. Shiga toxin

2. Toxin A

3. Enteric endotoxin

4. Cholera toxin (CT)

Cholera toxin (CT)

Quality control is set up on a new lot of an indole reagent. Clostridium bifermentans and Clostridium bolteae are used, and the following results are obtained:

· C. bifermentans: positive

· C. bolteae: negative

Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?

1. The reagent is most likely expired.

2. No discrepancy is present. The results obtained are correct.

3. These two organisms are poor choices; both are indole-positive.

4. The incubation time is most likely abbreviated.

No discrepancy is present. The results obtained are correct.

Which of the following is associated with gastric ulcers and gastritis?

1. V. cholerae

2. Helicobacter pylori

3. Campylobacter jejuni

4. Vibrio parahemolyticus

5. C. fetus

Helicobacter pylori

Which of the following is the causative agent of hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) and hemorrhagic colitis?

1. E. coli O157:H7/Shiga toxin-producing E. coli (STEC)

2. Yersinia entercolitica

3. Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)

4. Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)

5. Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)

E. coli O157:H7/Shiga toxin-producing E. coli (STEC)

Which of the following diseases is characterized by the production of "rice water" stools?

1. salmonellosis

2. botulism poisoning

3. cholera

4. Staphyloccocal food poisoning

5. shigellosis

cholera

A gram-negative bacillus that is hydrogen sulfide (H2S)-positive, citrate-positive, spot indole–negative, and associated with gastroenteritis in the United States is most likely:

1. S. sonnei.

2. P. vulgaris.

3. Salmonella enteritidis.

4. K. pneumoniae.

Salmonella enteritidis

E. coli would appear what color on HE agar?

1. Yellow with a black center

2. Green

3. Green with a black center

4. Yellow

Yellow

This organism, belonging to the family Enterobacteriaceae, grows best at 25°C to 30°C. Domestic and wild rats and other animals can carry this organism. What is the medium of choice?

1. Hektoen enteric (HE) agar

2. MacConkey agar

3. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate (XLD) agar

4. Cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin (CIN) agar

Cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin (CIN) agar

V. cholerae and Photobacterium damsela are used to perform quality control on TCBS agar. After overnight incubation, no growth is observed. What is the next course of action?

1. Reinoculate the TCBS agar, and incubate for 36 hours.

2. These two organisms are poor choices for quality control on TCBS agar.

3. Check the pH to ensure that it is 8.6.

4. Reincubate the plates for another 24 hours.

Check the pH to ensure that it is 8.6.

Campylobacter spp. can sometimes be detected by direct Gram-stain examination of fecal sample, which would reveal many:

1. small curved or seagull-winged gram-negative bacilli.

2. small gram-negative coccobacilli.

3. plump, faintly staining gram-negative bacilli.

4. large, faintly staining gram-negative bacilli.

small curved or seagull-winged gram-negative bacilli.

Stool received for routine culture in most clinical laboratories in the United States should be examined for the presence of at least:

1. Campylobacter and Vibrio spp.

2. Salmonella, Shigella, and Vibrio spp.

3. Salmonella and Shigella spp.

4. Campylobacter, Salmonella, and Shigella spp.

Campylobacter, Salmonella, and Shigella spp.

Colonies growing on modified cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin (CIN) agar appear to be either Aeromonas spp. or Yersinia enterocolitica. Which test should be performed to differentiate between these two organisms?

1. String test

2. Glucose fermentation

3. Sucrose fermentation

4. Oxidase

Oxidase

The most likely identification of an anaerobic gram-positive bacillus that produces spores is:

1. Eubacterium.

2. Eggerthella.

3. Bifidobacterium.

4. Clostridium

Clostridium

________________ may cause a gastrointestinal illness indistinguishable from appendicitis.

1. Yersinia enterocolitica

2. Campylobacter pylori

3. Vibrio cholera

4. Aeromonas hydrophila

5. Plesiomonas shigelloides

Yersinia enterocolitica

Enterotoxigenic and enteroinvasive are terms often linked to which of the following bacterial species?

1. S. enteritidis

2. S. sonnei

3. E. coli

4. Yersinia pestis

E. coli

The reagent used in the "string test" is:

1. bile solubility.

2. sodium deoxycholate.

3. bile esculin.

D. 0/129 (2,4-diamino-6,7-diisopropylpteridine).

sodium deoxycholate.

Curved gram negative rods (with some "S" and gull wing shapes) were isolated from a stool culture.

These organisms exhibited the following biochemical characteristics:oxidase = positive

raised, tan colonies

optimal growth at 42° C growth on Campy Agar in a microaerobic atmosphere

This organism is most likely -

1. Campylobacter jejuni

2. Aeromonas hydrophila

3. Vibrio cholerae

4. C. fetus

5. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Campylobacter jejuni

Members of the family Enterobacteriaceae can easily be differentiated from members of the family Vibrionaceae by -

1. the catalase test

2. nitrate reduction

3. gelatin hydrolysis

4. the oxidase test

5. the ability to ferment carbohydrates

the oxidase test

The majority of human infections with Campylobacter species are caused by:

1. contamination of food, milk, or water with animal feces.

2. multiplication of the organism in food products.

3. direct contact with carriers of the bacterium.

4. direct contact with persons infected with the bacterium.

contamination of food, milk, or water with animal feces.

Which organism, which is oxidase positive, does not grow on TCBS agar, has the ability to decarboxylate lysine and ornithine but cannot utilize arginine, and would have the following colonial characteristics on sheep blood agar and MacConkey agar?

1. γ-Hemolytic and is a nonlactose fermenter

2. α-Hemolytic and is a nonlactose fermenter

3. β-Hemolytic and is a nonlactose fermenter

4. α-Hemolytic and is a lactose fermenter

β-Hemolytic and is a nonlactose fermenter

Stool specimens suspected of containing which of the following enteric pathogens should be collected and transported only in Cary-Blair medium because buffered glycerol saline is toxic for this bacterium?

1. Plesiomonas

2. Shigella

3. Vibrio

Salmonella

Vibrio

Vibrio parahaemolyticus often causes gastroenteritis but may be an important cause of ____________ following seashore injuries.

1. pneumonia

2. septicemia

3. cellulitis

4. meningitis

5. endocarditis

cellulitis

A 36-year-old man enters the emergency department with lesions that are painful, red, swollen, and indurated. He is febrile and exhibiting regional lymphadenopathy (swollen glands). The lesions are marked and well demarcated with a raised border. Which organism is most likely responsible for causing this infection?

1. P. aeruginosa

2. Streptococcus pyogenes

3. Microsporum spp.

4. Bacteroides fragilis group

Streptococcus pyogenes

A patient is diagnosed with gas gangrene in the skin as a result of bullous lesions associated with sepsis. The Gram-stain reaction and morphologic features of the most probable pathogen causing this infection is:

1. gram-negative coccobacilli.

2. gram-positive cocci.

3. gram-positive bacilli.

4. gram-negative bacilli.

gram-positive bacilli.

An abscess that begins as a red nodule in a hair follicle that ultimately becomes painful and full of pus is a:

1. folliculitis.

2. erythrasma.

3. furuncle.

4. carbuncle.

furuncle.

Infections of the skin can become systemic resulting in serious morbidity and mortality. Hospital mortality from 42% to 65% is a result of infection in what type of skin injury?

1. Burns

2. Cellulitis

3. MRSA

4. Bite wounds

Burns

Fluid from a cutaneous black lesion was submitted for routine bacterial culture. After 18 hours of incubation at 35oC there was no growth on MacConkey agar, but 3+ growth on sheep blood agar. The colonies were nonhemolytic, nonmotile, 4-5 mm in diameter and off-white with a ground glass appearance. Each colony has an irregular edge with comma-shaped outgrowths that stood up like “beaten egg whites” when gently lifted with an inoculating needle. A Gram stain of typical colony showed large, Gram-positive rectangular bacilli. The organism is most likely:

1. Aeromonas hydrophila

2. Clostridium perfringens

3. Bacillus anthracis

4. Mycobacterium marinum

Bacillus anthracis

Nocardia spp. form branched filaments that extend into the air that are called _____ hyphae.

1. topical

2. substrate

3. aerial

4. surface

aerial

A catalase-negative, non–spore forming, gram-positive rod that is not acid-fast could possibly belong to which group of bacteria?

1. Corynebacterium

2. Erysipelothrix

3. Bacillus

4. Actinomyces

Erysipelothrix

Suspect spore-forming, gram-positive Bacillus species that is γ-hemolytic, nonmotile, and penicillin-susceptible and that produces a wide zone of lecithinase on egg yolk agar can be identified as:

1. Corynebacterium jeikeium.

2. Corynebacterium diphtheria.

3. Bacillus cereus.

4. B. anthracis.

B. anthracis.

A lesion from an individual that works in a research laboratory is cultured and reveals a “fried egg” appearance with a dark center when grown on blood agar after 48 hours of incubation. The organism is nonmotile, indole, catalase, oxidase, and nitrate negative. Which of the following organism was isolated?

1. Streptobacillus sp.

2. Aggregatibacter aphrophilus

3. Actinobacillus sp.

4. Cardiobacterium sp.

Streptobacillus sp.

The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is caused by acquired Spirillum minus is:

1. monillic fever.

2. sodoku.

3. monillic gastritis.

4. Haverhill fever.

sodoku

The etiologic agent of botulism is:

1. An exotoxin producer

2. Highly motile

3. Non spore-forming

4. A glucose fermenter

An exotoxin producer

Slow-growing NTM whose colonies become pigmented when exposed to light are referred to as:

1. chromogenicums.

2. nonphotochromogens.

3. photochromogens.

4. scotochromogens.

photochromogens

On Gram stain, mycobacteria appear as:

1. poorly stained, beaded, gram-positive bacilli.

2. slender, well-stained gram-positive bacilli.

3. gram-variable to gram-positive bacilli.

4. partially invisible gram-negative bacilli.

poorly stained, beaded, gram-positive bacilli.

The stain that does not require heating the slide for better penetration of stain into the mycobacterial cell wall is known as the:

1. Ziehl-Neelsen.

2. carbolfuchsin.

3. Kinyoun's.

4. immunofluorochrome.

Kinyoun's

What is the etiological agent of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

1. Rickettsia typhi

2. Rickettsia akari

3. Rickettsia rickettsia

4. All of the above

Rickettsia rickettsia

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommendations for testing in suspected cases of Lyme disease are to screen with ______ and confirm with ________.

1. IFA; immunoblotting

2. RPR; FTA-ABS

3. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA); immunofluorescent antibody (IFA)

4. ELISA; TP-PA

enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA); immunofluorescent antibody (IFA)

The etiologic (causative) agent of pinta is:

1. T. pallidum ss. Endemium

2. T. pallidum ss. pertenue

3. Treponema pallidum ss. Pallidum

4. Treponema carateum

5. Treponema hyodysenteriae

Treponema carateum

Fungal elements are seen in skin scrapings from a patient with athlete's foot. Velvety, white to tan colonies grow on the Sabouraud's agar. The organism produces a cherry red pigment on the cornmeal agar with dextrose. This organism is most likely-

1. T. terrestre

2. Trichopyton rubrum

3. Microsporum audouinii

4. T. mentagrophytes

5. Epidermophyton floccosum

Trichopyton rubrum

Which of the following Trichophyton spp. grows slowly (14 to 30 days) and best at 35°C to 37°C? In addition, enriched media with thiamine and inositol enhance its growth.

1. Trichophyton tonsurans

2. Trichophyton verrucosum

3. T. rubrum

4. T. mentagrophytes

Trichophyton verrucosum

__________ refers to fungal infection of the soles of the feet and between the toes (commonly called "athletes foot").

1. tinea pedis

2. tinea manuum

3. tinea nigra

4. tinea cruris

5. tinea unguium

tinea pedis

This organism colonizes the oral cavity of a variety of animals, especially cats and dogs and therefore is commonly isolated from cat and dog bites. What is the name of this organism?

1. Brucella canis

2. Pasteurella multocida

3. Spirillum minus

4. Pseudomonas mallei

5. Brucella suis

Pasteurella multocida

An abnormal passage between two organs or leading from an internal organ to the body surface is known as a:

1. fistula.

2. decubitus.

3. necrotizing fascia.

4. sinus tract.

fistula

Treponema pallidum ss. pertenue is the causative agent of -

1. Nonvenereal endemic syphilis

2. pinta

3. infectious jaundice

4. yaws

5. venereal and congenital syphilis

yaws

Necrotizing fasciitis is a serious infection associated with:

1. S. agalactiae

2. S. epidermidis

3. S. pyogenes

4. S. mitis

S. pyogenes

Erythrogenic toxin, hyaluronidase enzyme, and hemolysins S and O are extracellular products of:

1. S. pneumoniae.

2. S. pyogenes.

3. E. faecalis.

4. S. agalactiae.

S. pyogenes.

A chronic, granulomatous infection of subcutaneous tissues, which is caused by aerobic actinomycetes resulting in tissue swelling and draining sinus tracts, is referred to as:

1. lymphocytoma.

2. Actinomadura.

3. actinomycetoma.

4. infectious granulomas.

actinomycetoma

A patient diagnosed with B. anthracis is allergic to penicillin. Which antibiotic can be given that will be therapeutically effective?

1. Ampicillin

2. Imipenem

3. Vancomycin

4. Ciprofloxacin

Ciprofloxacin

A laboratory assistant that works with mice recently noticed that their lymph nodes were swollen and that they had a lesion on their hand that was not there a few weeks ago. The lymph node tissue is sent to the laboratory for culture. The laboratory technologist noticed on the stained sample that there was an organism present that resembled a spiral, gram negative with flagella. The cultures grew no organisms. What is the most likely cause for the discrepancy?

1. The organism was not allowed to incubate long enough.

2. The laboratory technologist did not culture the sample to media.

3. The organism is not able to grow on media and requires another method for identification.

4. The laboratory technologist misidentified the stain artifact as an organism.

The organism is not able to grow on media and requires another method for identification.

Which test is used to differentiate P. multocida from Mannheimia haemolytica?

1. Sucrose

2. Catalase

3. Indole

4. Nitrate

Indole

The specimens of choice for detecting nontuberculous mycobacterial disease are:

1. spontaneously produced sputa.

2. bronchial lavages, washings, and brushings.

3. transtracheal aspirations.

4. gastric lavages.

bronchial lavages, washings, and brushings.

Which organism avoids immune clearance through genetic variation of outer membrane proteins?

1. B. burgdorferi

2. Brachyspira spp.

3. Leptospira spp.

4. T. pallidum

B. burgdorferi