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Last updated 5:28 AM on 6/2/26
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149 Terms

1
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what does TDT stand for?

thermal death time

2
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how do you determine TDT?

testing to see at what time a bacteria stops showing growth at a certain temperature

3
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what is pasteruization? what temperature corresponds to this process

pasteruizstion is killing most of the vegetative cells in 30 minutes

4
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how is boiling different than pasteruization

boiling kills most vegetative cells in 10 minutes

5
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Do gram positive and gram negative bacteria respond differently to heat treatment? If so, why or why not?

They respond the same

6
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Does B sub (old) respond differently to heat treatment than B. sub (young)?

Yes because B sub old makes endospores and endospores are more heat resistant

7
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Describe the growth of bacteria that were kept at 4 celsius and 60 celsius

There was no growth at either temperatures

8
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How did these samples compare after incubating them at 37 degrees celsius?

  • The 4 degrees celsius showed growth and the 60 did not. This is because at 4 degrees the bacteria was static and at 60 it was cidal

9
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How does distance from UV source affect growth of bacteria?

Increase distance of UV source increases how much bacteria grows

10
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Why did we have to remove the lids from our petri  dishes when exposing them to UV radiation?

Because lids would block the UV

11
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What two types of UV damage repair mechanisms are found in bacteria?

DNA photolyase (faster and more efficient) and endonuclease (only one that works in the dark)

12
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Which ones work when visible light is present?

Both work when light is present

13
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What are some examples of halogens?

bleach and idoine; they are broad spectrum

14
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What type of disinfectant works well against gram negative bacteria, specifically?

Alcohols and phenoyls because they can dissolve the outer membrane

15
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what does MIC stand for?

Minimum inhibitory concentration, which is the least amount of chemical needed to kill a microbe

16
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How does the MIC relate to the size of the zone of inhibition?

Small MIC - large zone of inhibition inverse relationship

17
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What types of antibiotics were NARROW spectrum in lab?

Narrow were penicillin(G+) and polymyxin B(G-)

18
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What types of bacteria were “troublesome” bacteria?

Troublesome bacteria were B sub old (endospores), mycobacterium (mycolic acid in cell wall makes it difficult for chemicals to enter the cell) and pseudonomas because they have small or narrow porins on outer membrane

19
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Would penicillin be more effective against E.coli or staph aureus? Why?

It would be more effective against staph aureus because it is gram positive

20
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What types of bacteria is Rifampin (a nucleic acid synthesis inhibitor) effective against?

Rifampin in broad so it would effect both gram negative and gram positive

21
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Would polymyxin B produce a large or a small zone of inhibition against S. aureus?

Polymyxin B would produce a small zone of inhibition against S aureus because S aureus is gram positive

22
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would polymyxin B produce a large or small zone of inhibition against P. aeruginosa?

Pseudomonas aeruginosa would have a large zone of inhibition

23
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To make DNA samples move faster in gel electrophoresis, how could we manipulate:

  • Agarose concentration:

    • Decrease the concentration

  • Voltage: 

    • Increase the voltage

24
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Are the charges set up correctly on the following DNA gel electrophoresis?

No, because DNA is negatively charged, so the positive needs to be at the bottom to pull the DNA towards it

25
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Where would we find larger fragments of DNA? At position A or B?

  • Larger fragments of DNA would be at A because it didn’t move too far

26
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What do we use to digest (cut) DNA?

Restriction enzymes

27
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What does RFLP stand for?

Restriction fragment length polymorphism

28
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What structure can R+ bacteria make?

R+: plasmid (donor cell), antibiotic resistance (Rfactor) and sxx pilus

29
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What is the purpose of that structure that R+ makes?

Purpose of sex pilus moves plasmid from one bacteria to another

30
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If a bacteria is R+ and is antibiotic resistant, where can the gene for antibiotic resistance be located?

On the plasmid

31
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If a bacteria is R- and antibiotic resistant, where can the gene for resistance be located?

on the chromosome

32
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halogens examples

chlorine, iodine (broad)

33
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heavy metals examples

gold, silver, mercury (broad)

34
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oxidizing agents examples

H2O2 (broad)

35
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Phenols/alcohols examples

70% isoproponal, ethanol, triclosan (narrow against G-, dissolves the outer membrane

36
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Quaternary Ammonium examples

household cleaners and ammonium chloride (narrow against G+, goes thru cell wall)

37
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<p>What group does <em>Balantidium coli</em> belong to?</p>

What group does Balantidium coli belong to?

Group Ciliophora - moves with cilia

38
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What shape is the nucleus of Balantidium coli?

Bean/bar shaped

39
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How is Balantidium coli transmitted?

Cysts in contaminated food/water

40
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What disease symptom does Balantidium coli cause?

Diarrhea

41
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<p>Is <em>Paramecium</em> pathogenic or free-living?</p>

Is Paramecium pathogenic or free-living?

Free-living - moves with cilia

42
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<p>What group does <em>Entamoeba histolytica</em> belong to?</p>

What group does Entamoeba histolytica belong to?

amoebozoa

43
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What disease symptom does Entamoeba histolytica cause?

Diarrhea

44
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<p>What group does <em>Trichomonas vaginalis</em> belong to?</p>

What group does Trichomonas vaginalis belong to?

Archaezoa - moves with flagella

45
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<p>What group does <em>Trypanosoma</em> belong to?</p>

What group does Trypanosoma belong to?

Euglenozoa

46
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Which Trypanosoma species causes African sleeping sickness?

T. brucei - tsetse fly

47
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Which Trypanosoma species causes Chagas disease?

T. cruzi - triatomomine bug

48
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<p>Is <em>Euglena</em> free-living or pathogenic?</p>

Is Euglena free-living or pathogenic?

free-living and photosynthetic

49
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<p>What disease does <em>Plasmodium</em> cause?</p>

What disease does Plasmodium cause?

malaria

50
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<p>How can <em>Toxoplasma gondii</em> infection occur?</p>

How can Toxoplasma gondii infection occur?

Ingestion of cysts from cat feces

51
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What major risk does Toxoplasma gondii pose in pregnancy?

Can cross placenta causing birth defects - determined by serological testing

52
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What are yeasts?

unicellular fungi

53
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what are molds made of?

hyphae

54
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what is a mycelium?

mass of hyphae

55
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What is the most common Candida species?

Candida albicans - can overgrow and be opportunistic pathogen

56
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how does candida reproduce

budding

57
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what do molds use for reproduction?

spores

58
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which mold is the source of penicillin?

penicillum - conidia

59
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<p>What disease does <em>Coccidioides immitis</em> cause?</p>

What disease does Coccidioides immitis cause?

Valley Fever

60
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What type of helminth is Clonorchis sinensis?

Trematode (liver fluke)

61
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What type of helminth is Schistosoma mansoni?

Trematode

62
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What type of helminth is Taenia pisiformis?

Cestode

63
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What type of helminth is Trichinella spiralis?

Nematode

64
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indole test

tryptophan —> indole

red ring after Kovac’s: positive

no color change : negative

65
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TSI slant

yellow slant/yellow butt: ferments multiple sugars

red slant/yellow butt: glucose only

black precipitate: H2S production

66
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starch hydrolysis

clear zone: positive

67
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nitrate reduction

pink after reagents A + B: positive

pink after zinc: negative

clear after zinc: positive

68
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mueller-hinton

kirby-bauer antibiotic testing

69
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sabdex

used for fungi, yeasts, and molds

70
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thiglycollate

determines oxygen requirements

71
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streak plate

isolation of colonies

72
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spread plate

quantity and colony counting

73
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brewer’s jar

anaerobic condition for obligate anaerobe

74
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calibrated loop

0.001 mL used for urine cultures

75
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dilution series

each dilution decreases concentration

76
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counting microbes

colonies x dilution factor 30-300

77
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kirby-bauer

zone of inhibition, sensitive, intermediate, resistant

78
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UV light

high UV - kills microbes more time it’s there and less distance

79
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obligate anaerobe

cannot survive with oxygen - grows at bottom

80
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facultative anaerobe

can use both oxygen and no oxygen - grows throughout but more at top

81
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aerotolerant anaerobe

survive in the presence of oxygen but do not use it for growth - even growth throughout

82
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neutrophil

granulocyte

phagocytosis

<p>granulocyte</p><p>phagocytosis</p>
83
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eosinophil

granulocyte

helminth defense

<p>granulocyte</p><p>helminth defense</p>
84
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basophil

granulocyte

allergic reaction

<p>granulocyte</p><p>allergic reaction</p>
85
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monocyte

agranulocyte

phagocytosis

<p>agranulocyte</p><p>phagocytosis</p>
86
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lymphocyte

specific immunity

agranulocyte

<p>specific immunity</p><p>agranulocyte</p>
87
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endospore stain

green endospores and red vegetative cells

88
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89
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halophile + mannitol fermenter

staphylococcus aureus

90
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acid-fast

mycobacterium

91
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acid-fast stain

distinguishes bacteria based on the presence or absence of mycolic acid in their cell wall

92
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endospore former

old Bacillus subtilis

93
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presumptive test

coliforms are lactose fermenters - Most probable number

94
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confirmed test

uses EMB , growth is gram negative and metallic green is lactose fermenters

95
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completed test

morphology of microbe

96
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lysozymes

destroys the peptidoglycan cell wall in gram positive bacteria

97
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MR-VP test

MR: red broth (+) for glucose fermentation (add methyl red)

VP: red ring (+) for neutral waste

only one can be posititve

<p>MR: red broth (+) for glucose fermentation (add methyl red)</p><p>VP: red ring (+) for neutral waste </p><p>only one can be posititve</p>
98
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Durham test

tests for fermentation of one carb (glucose OR lactose)

yellow: (+) for carb fermentation

pink: (-)

bubble: fermentation resulted in gas prod

<p>tests for fermentation of one carb (glucose OR lactose)</p><p>yellow: (+) for carb fermentation</p><p>pink: (-)</p><p>bubble: fermentation resulted in gas prod</p>
99
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triple sugar iron slant

tests for carbohydrate fermentation and H2S gas production

contains glucose, lactose, and sucrose, and iron

iron reacts with H2S gas —> black precipitate

100
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TSI slant results

all red/pink slant: (-) for glu, lac, and suc fermentation

pink top/yellow but: (+) for glucose fermentation ONLY

all yellow slant: (+) for glucose fermentation AND sucrose and/or lactose fermentation

Black but: (+) for H2S gas prod (and for glucose fermentation)