Morph Corr Nuc Med 2 (ALL EXAM ANSWERS FOR FINAL)

Both non-blood brain barrier (non-BBB) crossing and blood brain barrier (BBB) crossing radiopharmaceuticals can be used for diagnosing brain death. Which class of tracers are considered to be the most sensitive and accurate for brain death?

neither, both are equally as good

the BBB crossing

the non-BBB crossing

neither, amyloid labeling agents should be used

the BBB crossing

What are the main differences between HMPAO and ECD?

ECD clears the blood stream quicker and can be imaged sooner after injection

HMPAO is a more stable tracer and has a longer shelp life after reconstituting

ECD shows both white and grey matter where as HMPAO mainly shows Grey matter

HMPAO is considered to be better in diagnosing changes in metabolic activity

ECD clears the blood stream quicker and can be imaged sooner after injection

When performing a brain death study using a BBB crossing radiopharmaceutical, the main sign of brain death is:

absence of uptake in the brain

visualized superior sagital sinus without seeing the brain stem

increase in the activity flowing into the circle of Willis from the internal carotid arteries

a large area of uptake where the BBB has been disrupted

Absence of uptake in the brain

The purpose of placing an elastic band (tourniquet) around a patient's head just above the orbits during a radionuclide angiogram (primarily for brain death evaluation) is:

To decrease the activity from the orbits

To increase intracranial pressure

To immobilize the patient

To decrease blood supply to small scalp vessels

To decrease blood supply to small scalp vessels

The venous phase of a cerebral blood flow study is signaled by:

Visualization of the jugular veins

Appearance of the radiopharmaceutical in the superior sagittal sinus

Disappearance of radiopharmaceutical from the carotid arteries

Appearance of radiopharmaceutical in the middle cerebral arteries

Appearance of the radiopharmaceutical in the superior sagittal sinus

The localization of 99mTc HMPAO is related to:

Cerebral blood flow

A breakdown of the blood-brain barrier

Glucose metabolism

Distribution of neuroreceptors

Cerebral blood flow

Which of the following is true regarding injection of the radiopharmaceuticals for SPECT brain imaging?

Family members should be allowed to talk to the patient during injection to keep them calm.

The injection should be made immediately after venous puncture to avoid clot formation.

Lights should be dimmed (or dark) during injection.

The patient should be encouraged to read or watch TV during injection to take his or her mind off any pain.

Lights should be dimmed (or dark) during injection.

Advantages of using ECD over HMPAO for SPECT imaging of the brain include:

More rapid clearance from the bloodstream

Better target to background ratio

All of these are correct

Can be injected up to 6 h after preparation

All of these are correct

Ictal SPECT and PET studies require an injection of radiopharmaceutical:

During a seizure

Immediately after a seizure

All of these answers are correct

Between seizures

During a seizure

When using F-18 FDG to evaluate a patient with epilepsy, which of the following statements are true:

If injected when the seizure starts, the epileptic foci will be cold

If injected immediately after the seizure finishes, the epileptic foci will be hot

If injected when the seizure starts, the epileptic foci will be hot

if injected immediately before, during, or after the seizure stops, the entire brain will have increased uptake

If injected when the seizure starts, the epileptic foci will be hot

In a patient with a parkinsonian syndrome, the DaTscan does not deposit in the caudate nucleus and the putamen as it should. It is said that the images show a period sign instead of a comma sign.

True

False

True

To prepare a patient for DaTscan study, which of the following is correct?

NPO overnight or at least 4 hours

Thyroid blockage by SSKI prior to the study

Injection must occur in a dimly lit or dark room

No Caffeine

Thyroid blockage by SSKI prior to the study

For DaTscan study, which of the following is correct?

It detects beta-amyloid deposition.

It detects brain infarction.

It detects brain neurofibrillary tangles.

It detects brain presynaptic dopamine transporter.

It detects brain presynaptic dopamine transporter.

To perform a DaTscan® study, which of the following is correct?

Imaging can be obtained 3-6 h after tracer injection.

A cereberal blood flow image should be obtained at the time of injection.

The camera shouldn't be brought too close to the patients head to avoid discomfort

Patients must remain quiet (no talking) and avoid moving to avoid uptake in the motor cortex

Imaging can be obtained 3-6 h after tracer injection.

The primary purpose of I-123 Ioflupane brain imaging is

find epileptic foci

diagnose Alzheimer's disease

to differentate parkinsonian disease from essential tremors

detect primary brain malignancy

to differentate parkinsonian disease from essential tremors

For Amyvid PET study, which of the following is correct?

none of these answers are correct

Arms should be above shoulders during imaging.

Blood sugar <200 mg/dl.

NPO for 4 h before the study is needed.

Imaging can be started as soon as 30 to 50 min after tracer injection.

Imaging can be started as soon as 30 to 50 min after tracer injection.

When using F-18 Amyloid imaging agents, which of the following is correct?

They detect brain Lewy bodies

They detect brain beta-amyloid deposition

They detect brain neurofibrillary tangles

They detect brain atrophy

They detect brain ischemia

They detect brain beta-amyloid deposition

Amyloid PET imaging is most helpful in patients with which of the following conditions:

Clinically diagnosed Parkinson's disease, to confirm with imaging findings

Clinically diagnosed Alzheimer's disease, to confirm with imaging findings

Suspected Alzheimer's disease but without definite diagnosis

Suspected Parkinson's disease but without definite diagnosis

Suspected Alzheimer's disease but without definite diagnosis

Amyloid PET is indicated in patients with the following conditions except:

Clinically progressive dementia with an early onset (65 years or less in age)

Persistent or progressive MCI with uncertain clinical diagnosis

Diagnosed Alzheimer’s disease, to determine the severity of dementia

Clinically suspected possible Alzheimer’s disease but with atypical clinical course

Diagnosed Alzheimer's disease, to determine the severity of dementia

Until recently, the biggest challenge with doing beta amyloid imaging for Alzheimer's disease was:

The exams were not positive until there was significant cognitive impairment

The sensitivity for diagnosing the disease is very low

There was little to no payment available because of a lack of treatment for the disease

Other tests, like MRI and cognitive exams were more accurate in diagnosing the disease

There was little to no payment available because of a lack of treatment for the disease

Which of the following statements is true when performing a Cerebral Spinal Fluid (CSF) scan

Immediately after the injection, the patient should sit up to allow for normal spinal fluid flow

The pharmaceutical of choice is In-111 Oxime

Since you are using In-111 you will have best results if you acquire the image using a PET scanner

The injection should be performed intrathecally by a physician between L3-L4

The injection should be performed intrathecally by a physician between L3-L4

Which of the following statements is incorrect (false)when performing a Cerebral Spinal Fluid (CSF) scan

 At 6 hours after the injection you should see a Vikings Helmet sign

On the immediate post injection image you should see the isotope beginning to spread out in the spinal column

Imaging should occur at 2 hours, 6 hours, 24 hours, and optionally 48 hours after the injection 

At 24 hours after the injection you should see a tulip sign

At 24 hours after the injection you should see a tulip sign

In patients who have suffered head trauma, they may be evaluated for a CSF leak. Although imaging may demonstrate this, pledgets (cotton fabric balls) are the preferred method. How are they used?

After patients are injected for a CSF study, they are taped to the injection site to see if any tracer is leaking out

After patients are injected for a CSF study, they are inserted in the patient's nasal cavity and ears to see if they become radioactive

After patients are injected for a CSF study, the pledgets are coated with the patients blood to see if there is radioactivity in their bloodstream

After patients are injected for a CSF study, the pledgets are placed in the patients mouth to see if their oral cavity becomes radioactive

After patients are injected for a CSF study, they are inserted in the patient's nasal cavity and ears to see if they become radioactive

What is the purpose of a CSF shunt study?

To make sure that the shunt is removing the excess CSF from the patients brain

To quantify the amount of CSF that is being produced by the brain

To make sure that the CSF is not being shunted to the wrong area of the body

To confirm the correct placement of the shunt in the brain's ventricles while surgery is being performed

To make sure that the shunt is removing the excess CSF from the patients brain

Why is 111In DTPA preferred over 99mTc DTPA for cisternography in adults?

Because it has a superior biodistribution

Because it has a longer half-life allowing delayed imaging

Because it has lower-energy photons

Because it has two photopeaks

Because it has a longer half-life allowing delayed imaging

The injection for a CSF shunt patency study is:

Intrathecal

Intravenous

Into the shunt reservoir or tubing

Subcutaneous

Into the shunt reservoir or tubing

START OF TEST TWO (GI)

50 Questions (Spring 2026)

The patient preparation for a gastric emptying study is __________.

that the patient must void before imaging

NPO for 4 - 8 hours

the patient should have a barium enema within the 24 hours before this exam

no patient preparation is required

NPO for 4 - 8 hours

In performing a gastric-emptying study, imaging should begin ___________.

immediately after meal consumption, and continue for at least 2 to 4 hours

immediately after meal consumption, and continue for 1 hours

15 minutes after meal consumption and continue for 1 hours

1 hour after meal consumption then once an hour for 6 hours

immediately after meal consumption, and continue for at least 2 to 4 hours

When performing a gastric emptying study, what is the purpose of giving Reglan (Metoclopramide)?

this stimulates the production of bile to increase the rate of digestion

this increases the amount of acid production to prevent an obstruction from forming out of the food

this increases the rate of gastric emptying in attempt to determine if the the gastroparesis is treatable

this drug is used for gall bladder imaging not gastric emptying

This increases the rate of gastric emptying in attempt to determine if the the gastroparesis is treatable

When administering Reglan (Metoclopramide) what special precautions should be taken?

there are no precaustions and this drug has no known side effects

do not quickly bolus inject the pharmaceutical because it can lead to a rapid drop in blood pressure

have a antidote pharmaceutical available in case the drug causes respiratory arrest

do not administer this drug until after the patient has received an injection of CCK (Kinevac)

Do not quickly bolus inject the pharmaceutical because it can lead to a rapid drop in blood pressure

When performing a gastric emptying study with a solid meal, what is considered to be the minimum normal range?

30% of the meal should have left the stomach by 1 hours after eating the meal

95% of the meal should have left the stomach by 2 hours after eating the meal

50% of the meal should have left the stomach by 3 hours after eating the meal

60% of the meal should have left the stomach by 2 hours after eating the meal

60% of the meal should have left the stomach by 2 hours after eating the meal

Which of the following is the reason it is important to have a standardized meal size and composition in a gastric-emptying scan?

It can affect the radiation dose to the patient

It can cause gastric tissue necrosis

It can affect the ability to have gastric emptying

It can affect the rate of gastric emptying

It can affect the rate of gastric emptying

A gastric-emptying study uses which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?

Tc-99m sulfur colloid

Tc-99m Macroaggregated Albumin

Tc-99m medronate

Tc-99m disida

Tc-99m sulfur colloid

When performing a gastric empty scan with a dual head camera, the most accurate measurement of emptying can be calculated by:

average the counts in the anterior and posterior views

divide the counts measured in the anterior views by the counts measured in the posterior views

just image from the anterior view since the posterior view is to far away from the stomach

performing a calculation of the geometric mean of the anterior and posterio views

performing a calculation of the geometric mean of the anterior and posterio views

A technologist decided to use a single-head camera in the anterior position for a normal solid-phase gastric emptying study. For the first 10 minutes, the counts will __________.

remain unchanged

decrease linearly

increase

decline exponentially

increase

Eggs are preferred over semi-solid meals like oatmeal because ___________.

it is more cost-effective and less likely to spoil

the exam is more reproducible and it has a higher binding percentage and is less likely to disintegrate in gastric fluid

None of the above

it has a higher fat content and results in a stronger stomache contraction

The exam is more reproducible and it has a higher binding percentage and is less likely to disintegrate in gastric fluid

The advantage of performing gastric emptying with a solid instead of a liquid is __________.

solids are emptied faster

the labeling procedure is easier (faster)

the patient does not need to be fasting

imaging with solids is more sensitive and accurate for abnormalities

Imaging with solids is more sensitive and accurate for abnormalities

Images acquired during a gastric-emptying study are primarily used for __________.

determination of an effective gastric plasma flow

determining when the tracer first exits the stomach

quantifying the rate at which the tracer is leaving the stomach

detecting the presence of Heliobacter-Pylori infection

quantifying the rate at which the tracer is leaving the stomach

A normal esophageal transit study result is __________.

more than 90% has traversed the esophagus by the end of 15 seconds

small localized hot spots throughout the esophagus

no activity reaching the esophagus

a clearance half-time of 4-6 minutes

more than 90% has traversed the esophagus by the end of 15 seconds

Which imaging study is acquired while an abdominal binder (resembling a large blood pressure cuff) is inflated to increasing pressures?

Gastrointestinal bleeding

Esophageal reflux study

Esophageal transit study

Gastric emptying study

Esophageal reflux study

In infants, 24-hour images are sometimes performed over what area to demonstrate gastroesophageal reflux?

Lung Fields

Upper small intestine

Spleen

Lower esophagus

Lung Fields

What would be considered a normal result for an esophageal reflux study in an adult?

no activity in the stomach

significant activity in the esophagus only after 50 mm of pressure

no activity in the esophagus

significant activity in the esophagus within 5 minutes of administration

no activity in the esophagus

In assessing gastric reflux of a communicative non-pediatric patient, ROIs should be placed over the __________.

esophagus and stomach

esophagus, small bowel, stomach, and liver/gallbladder

esophagus, small bowel, and stomach

esophagus and lungs

esophagus and stomach

What procedure should you follow in performing the infant equivalent of an adult esophageal reflux study?

image the lungs

reduce the pressure on the abdomen by about one-half

inject reduced activity according to the size of the child

image sooner than in adults

image the lungs

Patient preparation for a Meckel's study on an infant includes ___________.

written informed consent from the patient receiving the exam must be obtained

perform a barium study in conjunction with this study

CCK administration 15 minutes before starting the exam

NPO for 6 - 12 hours and consider administering ranatidine or glucagon

NPO for 6 - 12 hours and consider administering ranatidine or glucagon

What patient population is most commonly associated with Meckel's diverticulum scanning?

it is commonly used in all age populations

young adults

children younger than 2 years old

the elderly

children younger than 2 years old

A positive Meckel's diverticulum study demonstrates __________.

diffuse activity by 20 minutes after the injection in the bowel that fades with time

focal area of increased activity in the upper left quadrant that moves with time

unusualy increased activity in the stomach

focal area of increased activity in the right lower quadrant or mid-abdomen

Focal area of increased activity in the right lower quadrant or mid-abdomen

After acquiring the images below on a patient suspected of having a Meckel's diverticulum, the technologist should ___________.

image again in 1 - 2 hours

administer a different radiopharmaceutical and reimage

submit the images for reporting, the exam is complete

check the radiochemical purity

submit the images for reporting, the exam is complete

Localization of Meckel's diverticulum can be accomplished with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?

Tc-99m sulfur colloid

Tc-99m mebrofenin

Tc-99m pertechnetate

Tc-99m MAA

Tc-99m pertechnetate

When performing Meckel's diverticulum imaging, which of the following would be visualized in a positive study?

Malignant colon tissue

Ectopic stomach mucosa

Hepatic uptake

Ectopic endometrial tissue

Ectopic stomach mucosa

One disadvantage of using sulfur colloid for assessing a GI bleed is __________.

the persistent high body background from circulating Tc S.C. in the blood stream

its lack of sensitivity

it takes a relatively long time to perform the exam

it is only good if the patient is actively bleeding

It is only good if the patient is actively bleeding

To perform a sulfur colloid GI bleed study, __________.

Tc99m Sulfur Colloid can not be used to perform GI Bleed studies

perform a flow study of the abdome

ensure the entire liver and spleen are visualized by placing them in the center of the field of view

do a static image every 10 minutes for 90 - 120 minutes

perform a flow study of the abdome

Which of the following is the initial positioning for visualizing gastrointestinal bleeding with Tc99m labeled red blood cells?

Lower border of liver and spleen at top of field of view and pubic symhasis at the bottom of the field of view

Symphysis pubis (lower pelvis) in middle of field of view

Lower esophagus at top of field of view

Xiphoid (center of the chest) in middle of field of view

Lower border of liver and spleen at top of field of view and pubic symhasis at the bottom of the field of view

When labeling RBCs with Tc-99m, the stannous ions (tin form a cold PYP vial) __________.

is not required to label RBCs and is primarily used for bone imaging.

stabilize the RBCs so that they live longer

allows the Tc-99m to enter the RBCs by oxidizing it

lower the oxidation state of the Tc-99m that enters the cells trapping it inside of the cells

lower the oxidation state of the Tc-99m that enters the cells trapping it inside of the cells

A nuclear medicine GI bleed study is used to __________.

detect the presence of ulcers

quantitate the amount of blood from the gastrointestinal tract

determine if the bowel is obstructed

localize the bleeding site

localize the bleeding site

The advantage of a nuclear medicine GI bleed study over other modalities is it __________.

is able to locate bleeds precisely

it usually takes very little time

is very sensitive for low-volume bleeds

rarely produces false-positive or false-negative results.

is very sensitive for low-volume bleeds

During a GI bleed study, lateral or oblique views are sometimes acquired to:

distinguish between a bleed and a hemangioma

lateral and oblique views are never necessary for this study

quantitate the bleed

more accurately localize the bleed

more accurately localize the bleed

After imaging a GI bleed study with Tc99m labeled RBCs for 60 - 90 minutes, no focus of activity has appeared in the abdomen. The technologist should __________.

administer cimetidene

perform a SPECT study

administer 10 mg IV reglan to increase gastric motility

discontinue the study or obtain delayed images of intervals from 2-6 hours and/or 18-24 hours

discontinue the study or obtain delayed images of intervals from 2-6 hours and/or 18-24 hours

Which radiopharmaceutical is commonly used to image cavernous hemangioma?

Tc-99m sulfur colloid

Tc-99m RBCs

Tc-99m albumin colloid

Tc-99m pertechnetate

Tc-99m RBCs

A Tc99m labeled RBC liver scan demonstrates normal blood flow image and a focally increased blood pool on the delayed images. The most likely explanation for these findings is a(n):

cavernous hemangioma

abscess

focal nodular hyperplasia (FNH)

cavernous hemangioma

What is the preferred radiopharmacutical used when imaging spleen tissue?

In111 White Blood Cells

Tc99m Sulfur Colloid

Tc99m Heat treated Red Blood Cells

Tc99m Labeled Red Blood Cells

Tc99m Heat treated Red Blood Cells

What is the normal biodistribution of sulfur colloid?

85% liver, 10% spleen, 5% bone marrow

30% liver, 60% spleen, 5% bone marrow, 5% lung

60% liver, 30% spleen, 5% bone marrow, 5% lung

70% spleen, 20% Liver, 10% bone marrow

85% liver, 10% spleen, 5% bone marrow

What best describes the liver/spleen images below?

Top 2 images are from the anterior and the bottom image is from the posterior

This study shows colloidal shift with decreased liver function

The patient has abnormal stomach uptake

This is a normal appearing study

This study shows an infarcted spleen

This study shows colloidal shift with decreased liver function

What appearance is most common with the presence of metastasis on a liver/spleen sulfur colloid scan?

multiple hot spots

increased flow to the entire lobe containing the affected area

hepatomegaly

multiple cold spots

multiple cold spots

You have a patient whom you have just performed a liver spleen scan on but no spleen was visualized even though their spleen is visible on the CT scan. When you perform a spleen scan, again no spleen is visualized. What is this most likely cause of this anomaly?

the patient has a spleen but uptake of the pharmaceutical is being blocked by the contrast used for the CT scan

the patient does not have a spleen and the CT scan was read in error

the patient has a spleen but it is not functioning

the patient most likely has a Meckels diverticulitis

the patient has a spleen but it is not functioning

In SPECT liver imaging with Tc-99m sulfur colloid, how long after the injection should liver imaging typically begin?

30 minutes - 1 hour

3 - 4 hours

10 to 20 minutes

1 - 2 hours

10 to 20 minutes

What is the major advantage of performing a SPECT liver/spleen study?

decrease in imaging time

improved sensitivity

decrease the dose of radiopharmaceutical

improved spatial resolution

improved sensitivity

Typical appearance(s) of hepatitis on a liver/spleen sulfur colloid scan include(s) ___________.

hepatomegaly and a homogeneous increased of activity in the liver, and increased visualization of the spleen

hepatomegaly, increased activity in the spleen, and decreased activity in the liver

homogeneous increased activity in the liver with normal uptake in the spleen

hepatomegaly and a decrease in activity in both the liver and the spleen

hepatomegaly, increased activity in the spleen, and decreased activity in the liver

Which of the following should NOT be performed immediately before liver/spleen imaging with Tc-99m sulfur colloid?

 

Radiographic upper GI series using barium

 

CT of the abdomen using iodinated contrast

 

Gallbladder examination with ultrasound

 

Thyroid uptake with I-123 sodium iodide 24 hours earlier

Radiographic upper GI series using barium

A liver spleen image using Tc-S.C. indicative of a liver abscess will demonstrate which of the following characteristics?

single focal hot spot

multiple blotchy cold spots (Swiss cheese) with significant colloidal shift

single (possible multiple) focal cold spots usually without colloidal shift

multiple blotchy hot spots

single (possible multiple) focal cold spots usually without colloidal shift

Sulfur colloid uptake in the lungs usually means ___________.

there is increased lung function

a lung tumor is present

the patient has severe liver disease or the particles injected are too large

the spleen is missing or has been removed

the patient has severe liver disease or the particles injected are too large

Finding >20% of sulfur colloid activity administered, depositing in the bone marrow may indicate which of the following?

Acute avascular necrosis

Particles are too small or the patient has severe liver disease

Invasive metastatic disease in the bone marrow

Anemia

Particles are too small or the patient has severe liver disease

LeVeen shunts are placed to relieve _________.

hepatomegaly

bronchitis

reflux

ascites

ascites

The patency of a LeVeen shunt may be demonstrated with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?

Tc-99m pertechnetate or Tc-99m labeled red blood cells

Tc-99m MAA or Tc-99m sulfur colloid

Tc-99m HDP or Tc-99m MDP

Tc-99m mebrofenin or Tc-99m disofenin

Tc-99m MAA or Tc-99m sulfur colloid

When imaging to determine LeVeen shunt patency, the camera initially is positioned anteriorly over the abdomen, and delayed images can be acquired __________.

over the gastrointestinal tract

over the brain

over the bladder

over the lung or liver fields (depending on the radiopharmaceutical chosen)

Over the lung or liver fields (depending on the radiopharmaceutical chosen)

You have a patient that has just been diagnosed with multiple small masses in their abdomen on a CT scan. They are 5 years post motor vehicle accident (MVA) and surgical removal of their spleen and you really suspect that this is remnant spleen tissue. How would you best determine (least invasive, simple, cheap, accurate) if the masses are remnant spleen tissue or some form of malignancy.

In other words choose the best option even though multiple options are somewhat correct:

Do a spleen scan with denatured red blood cells

Do a liver spleen scan with sulfur colloid

Do a whole body bone scan looking for metastatic disease

Do a biopsy of multiple nodules

Do a spleen scan with denatured red blood cells

START EXAM THREE (CARDIAC)

CARDIAC TEST SPRING 2026 42 questions

Myocardial perfusion imaging is primarily performed to:

determine ejection fraction

record the rate of delivery of a bolus injection

detect the location and extent of ischemia

evaluate wall motion of the ventricles

Detect the location and extent of ischemia

When performing a SPECT myocardial perfusion exam, the best imaging acquisition would be:

A 360 degree acquisition around the patient

A 180 degree acquisition around the patient starting at the anterior view and ending on the posterior view while moving around the patients left side

A 180 degree acquisition around the patient starting at the anterior view and ending on the posterior view while moving around the patients right side

A 180 degree acquisition around the patient starting at the right anterior oblique view and ending on the left posterior oblique view while moving around the patients left side

A 180 degree acquisition around the patient starting at the right anterior oblique view and ending on the left posterior oblique view while moving around the patients left side

Calculate the target heart rate when performing a Bruce protocol stress test on a 53-year-old male.

115 BPM

125 BPM

136 BPM

142 BPM

142 BPM

For myocardial SPECT imaging, the technologist will typically position the patient:

supine with the left arm above the head

on their right side with the left arm above the head

on their left side with the right arm above the head

prone with the right arm above the head

Supine with the left arm above the head

In the 1 day protocol for myocardial perfusion imaging performed with a 99mTc-labeled tracer, the larger amount of activity is administered __________.

for the rest study

for the study performed second

for the study performed first

for the stress study

For the study performed second

An exercise/treadmill cardiac stress test requires the placement of how many electrodes on the patient's body?

6

10

12

15

10

The inferior wall of the heart is predominantly perfused by which artery?

Left Main Artery

Left Anterior Descending

Left Circumflex

Right Coronary Artery

Right Coronary Artery

When performing a myocardial perfusion exercise stress test, ideally the radiopharmaceutical should be injected at:

the beginning of stress

85% of anticipated maximum stress and the exercise continued for 1 to 2 minutes

peak stress and exercise terminated immediately

once peak stress has been achieved and then waiting 2-3 minutes after the exercise treadmill has been stopped

85% of anticipated maximum stress and the exercise continued for 1 to 2 minutes

Stress-rest myocardial imaging performed with 99mTc-sestamibi or 99mTc-tetrofosmin requires two administrations of the radio-pharmaceutical, a low dose then a higher dose, because the tracer __________.

does not redistribute once it has been taken up by the myocardium

rapidly washes out of the myocardium after administration

has too short a half-life to permit delayed imaging

has a fast biological half-life

Does not redistribute once it has been taken up by the myocardium

When dual-radionuclide myocardial perfusion imaging is performed, which of the following tracers are used for stress and which for rest?

Stress - Tc-99m sestamibi; Rest - Tc-99m Teboroxime

Stress - Tl-201 Thallous chloride; Rest - Tc-99m sestamibi

Stress - Tc-99m sestamibi; Rest - Tl-201 Thallous chloride

Stress - Tc-99m sestamibi; Rest - labeled red blood cells

Stress - Tc-99m sestamibi; Rest - Tl-201 Thallous chloride

Treatment of the adverse effects induced by dipyridamole (persantine) involves the administration of __________.

acetazolamide

adenosine

aminophylline

Esmolol

Aminophylline

Which of the following drugs will reverse the effects of adenosine (adenocard)?

Aminophylline

Triptophyline

Furosemide

Metoclopramide hydrochloride

Breviblock

Aminophylline

Which coronary artery primarily supplies region "D" ?

a. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery

b. Right Coronary Artery (RCA)

c. Left Circuflex (LCx) artery

d. Obtuse Marginal (OM) artery

Left Circuflex (LCx) artery

A patient with a history of bronchospastic disease (asthma) and wheezing arrives for a pharmacological myocardial stress test. The technologist will most likely perform the study using:

exercise stress

dipyridamole

adenosine

dobutamine

dobutamine

The advantage Regadenosine has over Adenosine and Dipyridamole is:

a. It has no side effects

b. It increases the amount of vasodilation in comparison to the other agents

c. It has a decreased risk of respiratory attacks because it only targets A2a receptors

d. It is not effected by methylxanthines

It has a decreased risk of respiratory attacks because it only targets A2a receptors

After stress myocardial imaging with 201Thallous chloride, a second dose of 1-3 mCi of 201Thallous chloride may be administered after the stress images and before the rest myocardial images to __________.

improve patient throughput

demonstrate reversible ischemia more readily or detect stunned/hybernating myocardial tissue

demonstrate infarct size more precisely

minimize visualization of attenuation artifacts

demonstrate reversible ischemia more readily or detect stunned/hybernating myocardial tissue

The image below best demonstrates

a. A normal myocardial perfusion study

b. a narrowed left anterior descending artery

c. a narrowed right coronary artery

d. a 100% occluded / blocked left anterior descending artery

a narrowed right coronary artery

Which of the following must be discontinued for at least 24-36 hours before the administration of dipyridamole?

Iodine containing foods

Insulin

Caffeine

Blood Pressure Meds (ACE Inhibitors)

Caffeine

To help clear the liver and bowel when performing the imaging of the stress portion of a myocardial perfusion study with 99mTc-sestamibi, a technologist should give the patient which of the following before imaging?

Fatty meal

Dobutamine

Aminophylline

CCK

Fatty meal

Each of the following is a (relative or absolute) contraindication for adenosine stress testing EXCEPT:

a. recent myocardial infarction (< 4 days)

b. hypertension ( > 160mm systolic)

c. hypotension (< 100mm systolic)

d. allergy to adenosine or aminophylline

e. severe COPD and asthma

Hypertension ( > 160mm systolic)

What is the reason for performing a 4 hour delayed redistribution thallium image

Must wait for the heart rate to return to normal

Because ischemic tissue redistribute faster than normal tissue

4 hours must be waited to allow pulmonary uptake to deminish

Because the tracer does not remain fixed in the myocardium, by 4 hours most of the redistribution has taken place showing viable tissue.

Because the tracer does not remain fixed in the myocardium, by 4 hours most of the redistribution has taken place showing viable tissue.

A bull's-eye display of myocardial perfusion data is constructed by stacking then flattening which reconstructed/reoriented slices?

none, this comes from the 2d anterior planar view

vertical long-axis slices

horizontal long-axis slices

short-axis slices

short-axis slices