Cell Bio

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Last updated 2:35 PM on 5/4/26
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51 Terms

1
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Which factor allows K+ and not Na+ to pass through a K+ channel?

specific placement of carbonyl oxygen atoms in the selectivity filter

2
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Which part of a neuron releases a neurotransmitter into a synaptic cleft?

nerve terminal

3
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With the Na+/K+ pump, which step is energetically favorable and drives the exchange of ions across the intestinal epithelial cell membrane?

ATP hydrolysis

4
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At neuromuscular junctions, if a neurotransmitter triggers the opening of a Na+ channel in the postsynaptic cell, this is considered a(n) _______ synapse.

excitatory

5
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Which of the following is an example of how a negative membrane potential can arise from a plasma membrane that originally has no net charge on each side?

the opening of a K+ leak channel and the flow of K+ out of the cell

6
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What limits the resolving power of a transmission electron microscope?

the numerical aperture of the objective lens and the wavelength of an electron

7
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You discovered a new fluorescent protein that has a peak absorption at 545 nm and a peak emission at 580nm. Which of these filter sets are appropriate for your new fluorescent protein? Filter 1 is placed between the light sourceand the sample. Filter 2 is placed between the sample and the eyepiece.

Filter 1: passes all wavelengths between 425 and 550 nm

Filter 2: passes wavelengths between 555 and 590 nm

8
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Membrane lipids are capable of many different types of movement. Which of these does not occur spontaneously in biological membranes?

switching between lipid layers

9
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How can proteins with polar peptide bonds integrate into the membrane?

they can integrate as an alpha-helix, in which the polar peptide bonds are driven to form hydrogen bonds with one another

10
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Which of the following changes in lipid composition would make the membrane more fluid?

a decrease in the length of the fatty acid tail

11
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The plasma membrane's barrier to passive diffusion is primarily a function of the membrane's _________.

phospholipids

12
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In a typical mammalian cell, the concentration of ______ is higher on the inside, and the concentration of ______ is higher on the outside.

K+ ; Na+ and Cl-

13
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Active transport is transport in an energetically _______.

unfavorable direction, always coupled to another reaction or source of energy

14
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Both excitatory and inhibitory neurons form junctions with muscles. By what mechanism do inhibitory neurotransmitters prevent the postsynaptic cell from firing an action potential?

by opening Cl- channels

15
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What is the smallest distance two points can be separated and still resolved using light microscopy?

200 nm

16
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Which statements comparing co-translational and post-translational transport into the ER are TRUE?

both require that the translocated protein have a signal sequence.

both require that the protein is not folded before it enters the ER.

both use the Sec61 translocator.

17
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Fully folded proteins can be transported into which organelles?

nucleus and golgi

18
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Ricin is one of the most powerful toxins. The protein consists of two subunits: the A chain is an enzyme that inhibits translation and the B chain is a lectin that binds to carbohydrates on the cell surface. What is the most likely mechanism by which ricin enters the cell?

the protein is internalized by endocytosis

19
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During nuclear import, what coincides with the binding of Ran-GTP to the receptor?

the cargo is released in the nucleus

20
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In glycolysis, the key control enzyme that is inhibited by excess ATP is:

phosphofructokinase

21
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During nuclear export, what allows the release of the cargo into the cytosol?

RanGTP hydrolysis

22
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In which organelles are proteins glycosylated?

ER and golgi

23
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What component of the mitochondrial outer membrane allows ATP to pass easily through the outer membrane?

a specialized lipid bilayer that contains porins made of beta-barrels

24
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Once a vesicle has reached the right target membrane, which of the following are required directly for the fusion of a vesicle with the target membrane?

SNARE proteins

25
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Approximately how many molecules of ATP can be produced in mitochondria from the complete oxidation of a single glucose molecule?

30

26
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During nuclear export, what coincides with the binding of Ran-GTP to the receptor?

the receptor loads the cargo

27
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Which translocator inserts proteins encoded by the mitochondria into the inner membrane?

OXA

28
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The link between bond-forming reactions and membrane transport processes in the mitochondria is called ______.

chemiosmotic coupling

29
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Which monomeric GTPase is required for COPII assembly?

Sar1

30
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What is the role of autophagy in the cell?

to break down worn out organelles

31
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Why is an in vitro microtubule polymerization assay faster if a filament seed is added?

the nucleation phase is decreased

32
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Which of the following is NOT true of receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) signaling?

RTKs use the hydrolysis of GTP to transfer a phosphate onto their substrates.

33
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What do IP3 and ryanodine receptors release when open?

Ca2+

34
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What is a consequence of adding Phalloidin to the cell?

actin filaments are stabilized

35
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Which of the following actin regulators sequesters actin monomers?

thymosin

36
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Once NO is made, it diffuses across the membrane into the smooth muscle. What does NO bind in the smooth muscle cell to produce cGMP?

guanylyl cyclase

37
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Which of the following chemical inhibitors leads to microtubule depolymerization?

nocodazole

38
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Which of the following statements about molecular switches are TRUE?

protein kinases transfer the terminal phosphate from ATP onto a protein

serine/threonine kinases phosphorylate serine and threonine residues

a GEF stimulates GTP-binding protein to exchange its bound GDP for GTP to become activated

39
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Which of the following statements about the gamma-Tubulin Ring Complex (gamma-TURC) are TRUE?

it nucleates microtubules and facilitates the organization of a polarized microtubule array

it is concentrated at the centrosome

it caps the minus ends of microtubules

40
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Which of the following is an example of negative feedback?

Activation of a kinase by phosphorylation and then inhibition of the kinase by a phosphatase that was activated by the kinase.

41
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An actin-binding protein called cofilin binds preferentially to ADP-containing actin filaments rather than ATP-containing actin filaments. Based on this preference, which is true?

cofilin binds to older actin filaments.

42
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When cells respond to an extracellular signal, they most often convert the information carried by this molecule from one form to another. What is this process called?

signal transduction

43
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If GTP hydrolysis occurs on a tubulin molecule at the plus end of a microtubule protofilament before another tubulin molecule is added, what typically happens?

the microtubule depolymerizes

44
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For skeletal muscle contraction, what allows the release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

a Ca2+ release channel on the membrane of the sarcoplasmic reticulum

45
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CAK

adds activating phosphate to inactive M-Cdk (activating it)

46
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Wee1

adds inhibitory phosphate to M-Cdk (inactivating it)

47
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Cdc25

once active, it activates M-Cdk

48
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PP2A-B55

activates Wee1 by removing inhibitory phosphate

inactivates Cdc25 by removing activating phosphate

(works to inactivate M-Cdk)

49
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M-Cdk positive feedback

activates Cdc25 by adding activating phosphate

inactivates Wee1 by adding inhibitory phosphate

inhibits PP2A-B55

(works to activate itself)

50
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intrinsic apoptotic pathway

Bax or Bak form pore in mitochondrial membrane → release of cyt. c from mitochondria → activation of adaptor protein through binding to cyt. c → many active adaptor proteins form apoptosome → recruitment of procaspase-9 to apoptosome → caspase cascade leading to apoptosis

51
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extrinsic apoptotic pathway

killer lymphocyte with Fas ligand (activated by bacterial/viral infection) binds to Fas death receptor on target cell → DISC forms on inside of cell connected to Fas d.r. composed of FADD adaptor—DEDs—caspase-8 (caspase-8 activation by dimerization → caspase-8 cross-cleavage and subunit rearrangement → executioner caspases released and activate apoptosis