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A person lying face up in the anatomical position is said to be in the ________ position.
Supine
One of the descriptions below is from the perspective of anatomical study, the rest are from a physiological perspective. Select the description below that comes from an anatomical perspective.
The innermost lining of the lungs is composed primarily of a thin tissue called simple squamous epithelium.
Which of the following is an example of negative feedback?
An increase in normal body temperature triggers heat loss through enhanced blood flow to the skin and increased sweating.
When a baby suckles at its mother's breast the stimulus at the breast is sent to the mother's brain (a region called the hypothalamus). The brain responds by releasing hormones to stimulate the production and the ejection of milk from the breast. This helps the newborn to receive nourishment and encourages more suckling. This example is best described as a ________.
positive feedback
Anabolic reactions are chemical reactions of the body that build things, make them bigger or more complex. Catabolic reactions break things down making them smaller or less complex. If the rate of anabolic reaction in the body is much faster than the rate of catabolic reactions, which of the following necessary life function will be accomplished?
growth
Which of the following is directly lateral to the mediastinum?
pleural cavity
Select the correct statement regarding epithelia
Stratified epithelia are present where protection from abrasion is important.
Which of the following organ systems are involved in the uptake and transport of materials required for life-sustaining processes?
I. Digestive system
II. Urinary system
III. Nervous system
IV. Cardiovascular system
V. Reproductive system
VI. Respiratory system
I, IV, VI
All of the following statements are TRUE of epithelial tissue EXCEPT:
Epithelial cells are not capable of division.
Which of the following epithelia is rare in the body and is found in ducts of sweat and mammary glands?
stratified cuboidal
Which of the following is NOT a function of epithelia?
storage
In which type of cell junction are two cells held together by embedded membrane proteins called connexons?
gap junction
Which type of epithelium secretes enzymes and buffers in the pancreas and salivary glands?
simple cuboidal
Which of the following is the simplest level of organization that can do all of the following: reproduce, grow, be responsive, move, and metabolize?
cell
The membrane covering the surface of the stomach is named the
visceral peritoneum
The epigastric region is superior to the umbilical region.
True
After a heart attack, fibrosis occurs at the site of cardiac muscle cell death. This reduces the efficiency of the heart's pumping activity because __________.
fibrous connective tissue is incapable of contracting
The skin has three components: the epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis.
False
Which feature is true for muscle tissue?
Muscle cells contain actin and myosin filaments.
Membranes that consist primarily of areolar tissue and an incomplete layer of epithelial tissue are called ________ membranes.
synovial
Which of the following is true about the mode of secretion of exocrine glands?
Merocrine glands are not altered by the secretory process.
Which statement is true about nervous tissue?
Not all nervous tissue is located within the brain and spinal cord.
Regions in which muscle cells are interconnected via specialized attachment sites, containing gap junctions and desmosomes, are called ________.
intercalated discs
Without adipocytes, we would not be able to _______________.
insulate the body
Which of the following are INCORRECTLY paired?
muscle; endoderm
A patient with liver disease has impaired structural support inside the organ. Normally, a connective tissue with a delicate network of fibers forms the framework for soft organs like the liver, spleen, and lymph nodes. Which tissue is this?
reticular tissue
Which of the following describes how taking an antihistamine drug affects an injury?
Antihistamines decrease the symptoms of inflammation after injury.
Which of the following would lead to pain experienced at the sight of inflammation?
localized swelling (edema)
Which of the following is a vital function of the integumentary system?
The skin synthesizes vitamin D.
Identify the type of connective tissue that strengthens and supports areas subjected to stresses from many directions.
dense irregular connective tissue
Cartilage has good regenerative capacity, while most epithelial tissues do not.
False
Unlike cartilage, bone __________.
contains a blood supply
You are late to your BIO 2870 lecture. As you enter the room, you hear your instructor talking about canaliculi, which are associated with _______________.
osteocytes in bone
Exposure of the skin to ultraviolet light
can increase melanocyte activity
Joe just burned himself on a hot pot, and the burn is quite painful. Joe's burn would best be described as a third-degree burn
False
The following events are part of the skin repair process. In which order do they occur?
Phagocytosis of pathogens and debris
Formation of scar tissue
Inflammatory response
Formation of scab
3,4,1,2
Which of the following is formed via intramembranous ossification?
mandible
The presence of an epiphyseal line indicates
epiphyseal growth has ended.
Which of the following structure is composed of dead cells?
all of these structures are composed of dead cells
The glands that begin discharging a sticky, cloudy, and potentially odorous secretion at puberty are called ________ glands.
apocrine
Which of the following cells and their function are correctly matched?
dendritic cells - activate the immune system
What type of tissue is the epidermis composed of?
Stratified Squamous Epithelium
Which layer of the epidermis is responsible for water resistance?
Stratum Corneum
You have learned that tape or adhesive bandages must be removed carefully from the skin on patients who are elderly to avoid tearing their fragile skin. What accounts for the fragility of their skin?
There are fewer collagen and elastic fibers in the reticular layer of the dermis as we age, contributing to wrinkling and increased susceptibility to tearing of the skin.
The following events are part of endochondral ossification. In which order do they occur?
Formation of the primary ossification center
Osteoclasts break down the spongy bone to create marrow cavity.
Cells from the perichondrium differentiate into osteoblasts.
Formation of the secondary ossification centers
Calcification of matrix surrounding chondrocytes
5,3,1,2,4
In albinism, ________ is lacking.
melanin
Which of the following matches the cell with its function?
osteoblasts: ossification
William has a cut that is superficial, not bleeding, and has affected his sense of touch where the cut is. Based on this information, you would predict that the cut has penetrated to ________.
the stratum basale but not the dermal layers
Rickets is a condition marked by a softening and bending of bones that occurs in growing children, as a result of ________ deficiency.
vitamin D3
Marie and Joan are the same height, but Marie weighs 25 pounds more than Joan. When they go hiking in cold weather, Joan needs two more layers of clothing than Marie to stay warm. Which of the following can explain why?
Marie has more subcutaneous fat, which insulates the body's core.
What is the main difference between spongy bone and compact bone?
Compact bones contain osteons; spongy bones contain trabeculae.
A primary function of the skeletal system is
maintaining the normal concentrations of calcium and phosphate ions in body fluids.
Tarsal bones are classified as ________ bones.
short
What role does the female integumentary system have in human reproduction?
Specialized integumentary glands produce milk.
What is the main role of vitamin D3 produced in the skin?
Uptake of calcium
The skin provides a somewhat waterproof outer shell that helps the body retain water. However, one of the integument's other functions involves losing water (along with salts and organic wastes). Which function is that?
Heat loss through sweating
The bones of the pelvis
include portions of both axial and appendicular elements.
The ridges that can be felt along the backbone, on the dorsal aspect of the body, are produced by the
spinous processes.
How many vertebrae make up the cervical region of the vertebral column?
7
Another name for the axis is:
C2
Identify a unique characteristic of a typical cervical vertebra.
Bifid spinous process
Foramina located in the _____ is a characteristic of cervical vertebrae.
Transverse processes
Which region of the vertebral column contains the smallest vertebrae?
Cervical region
Which two features make up the hinge joint at the elbow?
trochlea of humerus and trochlear notch of ulna
Which of the following is most likely to be damaged during CPR (cardiopulmonary resuscitation)?
xiphoid process
Which of the following bones is NOT weight bearing?
fibula
A cleft palate arises when the right and left _____________ bones fail to fuse medially during fetal development.
maxillae
Which of the following bones does NOT contain a paired paranasal sinus?
the zygomatic bones
Thoracic vertebrae differ from the other vertebrae in that they have ________.
costal facets
The inferior margin of the vomer articulates with which bone(s)?
palatine bones
Which of the following is an abnormal lateral curvature of the vertebral column often seen in the thoracic region?
scoliosis
Which of the following CORRECTLY pairs a bone with its distinctive feature?
acromion - scapula
As you stand on the tip of your toes to reach the top shelf of the cabinet, which joint movement are you performing?
plantar flexion
Ribs that are connected to the sternum by separate cartilaginous extensions are called ________ ribs.
true
Compared with the male pelvis, the female pelvis has a
larger pelvic outlet.
Which term describes a complex movement that includes both changing the angle at a joint and then moving the distal bone in a circular direction?
Circumduction
Which type of synovial joint is correctly matched with its example?
Hinge; Joint between phalanges
Which of the following statements describes how muscles help maintain homeostasis?
Skeletal muscle contractions help maintain body temperature.
Fibrous cartilage discs that act as shock absorbers in joints are called ________.
menisci
Which statement regarding the relaxation phase of a muscle twitch is true?
Muscle tension falls to resting levels.
A student is analyzing how skeletal muscle fibers supply ATP during different levels of activity. He records ATP production at rest, during moderate exercise, and at peak levels of activity. Which of the following is TRUE about primary ATP source with the condition?
at rest – aerobic metabolism of fatty acids; moderate activity – aerobic breakdown of glucose; peak activity – anaerobic glycolysis and creatine phosphate
During a study of skeletal muscle repair after injury, a researcher notices small stem-cell–like structures located just outside the muscle fiber’s plasma membrane but still enclosed by connective tissue. These cells are responsible for growth and regeneration of skeletal muscle fibers. In which connective tissue layer are these cells located?
endomysium
If a muscle fiber were to suddenly and permanently stop producing ATP the fiber would no longer be able to actively transport calcium out of the cytoplasm (sarcoplasm) and the intracellular calcium concentration would rise. Which of the following would you expect to happen?
Myosin would be able to bind to the exposed binding sites on thin filaments but it would not be able to detach.
Which of the following is responsible for preventing a muscle from contracting?
Calcium ions are removed from the sarcoplasm by active transport.
Which of the following is NOT a role of ATP in muscle contraction?
Exposing myosin binding sites on actin
Which statement regarding isometric contractions is true?
The tension produced never exceeds the load.
Which of the following statements is true?
The neurotransmitter is stored in the axon terminal of the motor neuron.
Which of the following events most directly occurs due to an action potential generated by the motor neuron?
ACh is released at the synaptic cleft.
The generation of an action potential in the sarcolemma is short in duration. Which of the following explanations describes why the reaction of the sarcolemma is short in duration?
AChE acts to break down the ACh in the synaptic cleft.
Muscle cells…
can only contract.
Which of the following occurs when tension production rises to a peak and very brief periods of relaxation occur?
incomplete tetanus
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
The more muscle fibers a motor unit contains, the finer the movement.
During muscle contraction, which of the following sequences CORRECTLY describes the role of calcium, troponin, tropomyosin, and Ca²⁺ pumps
Ca²⁺ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum → Ca²⁺ binds troponin → tropomyosin moves to expose actin binding sites → Ca²⁺ pumps return Ca²⁺ to the sarcoplasmic reticulu
Based on what you know of the relationship between the thick and the thin filaments, what would happen if a disorder existed that caused a person to produce no tropomyosin?
The muscle tissues would never be able to relax
Which statement regarding isometric contractions is true?
The tension produced never exceeds the load.
Myasthenia gravis is a disease that is believed to be caused by autoimmune disorder, resulting in the loss of ACh receptors at the motor end plate of muscle fibers. Which of the following is likely to be a symptom of myasthenia gravis
weakness of muscle
Which statement regarding skeletal muscle is true?
Skeletal muscles contain blood vessels.
Which of the following is ranked from smallest to largest?
H-band, sarcomere, myofibril, muscle fiber, fascicle, muscle
A person whose genetic makeup makes him or her a better marathon runner than a sprinter probably has more ________ in his or her leg muscles.
slow fibers
"Anaerobic endurance"
is exemplified by contractions of fast muscle fibers.