Food Animal Anemia

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Last updated 1:29 PM on 4/27/26
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68 Terms

1
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What is the PCV, RBC, and Hb values that are indicative of anemia generally?

PCV: <24%

RBC: <5 x 10^6

Hb: <8

2
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What are the THREE general clinical presentations of anemia?

1. Pale mucus membranes

2. Weakness/exercise intolerance

3. Mental depression/aggression (brain hypoxia)

3
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True or False: You should transfuse every animal with a low PCV.

False! You should only transfuse patients with anemia that have CLINICAL evidence of condition.

4
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True or False: Chronic disease anemia is relatively common in livestock.

True!

5
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What are the TWO major causes of regenerative anemia?

1. Hemorrhage/blood loss

2. Hemolysis

6
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Which is considered the most highly regenerative cause of anemia?

Hemorrhage

7
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True or False: Blood loss can go from regenerative to non-regenerative if it becomes chronic enough.

True!

8
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What are the FOUR major causes of non-regenerative anemia?

1. Chronic disease

2. Chronic renal failure

3. Nutrient deficiencies

4. Intrinsic bone marrow disease

9
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What are the THREE general etiologies of anemia?

1. Blood loss

2. Hemolysis

3. Inadequate RBC production

10
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What are the THREE common causes for blood loss anemia?

1. Intestinal parasites

2. Ectoparasites

3. Abomasal ulceration (esp. in stressed animals)

11
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What are FOUR less common causes of blood loss anemia?

1. DIC

2. Moldy sweet clover toxicosis

3. Caval syndrome

4. Pyelonephritis (post-partum cows)

12
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What is the thrombosis of the caudal vena cava, which leads to the lungs and sheds emoboli, creating epistaxis and subsequently anemia?

Caval syndrome

13
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Name at least THREE of the 5 acute blood loss causes.

1. Trauma

2. Surgical procedures

3. Rupture of middle uterine a

4. Rupture of pulmonary vessel

5. Abomasal ulcers

14
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Name at least FOUR of the 6 chronic blood loss causes.

1. Internal parasites

2. External parasites

3. Renal disease

4. Abomasal lymphosarcoma

5. Bladder neoplasia

6. Hemostatic dysfunction

15
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How can you differentiate between a perforating and non-perforating ulcer?

Perf: no melena or dark stool; ileus/peritonits/poor-doer

Non-perf: melena or dark stool

16
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How can you differentiate between ulcers and intussusception?

How would you treat them differently?

Ulcers: normal feces, dark color -> medical management

Intussusception: scant feces, dark color -> surgery

17
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What makes up to HOTC complex?

Haemonchus contortus, Ostertagia, Trichostrongylus, Cooperia

(Also trichuris, nematodirus, and oesophagostomum)

18
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What parasite is a massive blood feeder that can cause sudden death, as it may ingest up to 0.05 ml/day?

Haemonchus contortus

19
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What are the TWO hallmarks of disease with Haemonchus contortus?

1. Anemia

2. Hypoproteinemia

20
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What are the "4 P's?"

Permanent pasture perpetuates parasitism

21
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True or False: Housing horses and goats together can actually be chill because horses ingest H. Contortus larvae and cannot become infected, reducing the intake by the goats.

True!

22
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What is a major clinical sign of hypoalbuminemia related to parasites, especially in small ruminants?

Submandibular edema

23
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What is a good way to assess mucus membranes in food animals?

FAMACHA (vulva, etc.)

24
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What are the FIVE common causes of hemolytic anemia?

1. Anaplasmosis

2. Heinz body anemia (onion toxicity)

3. Bacillary hemoglobinuria (C. Hemolyticum)

4. Leptospirosis

5. Copper toxicosis

25
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Name at least THREE less common causes of hemolytic anemia.

1. Babesiosis

2. Eperythrozoonosis

3. IMHA

4. Water intoxication

5. Postparturient hemoglobinuria

26
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What organism infects RBCs and is endemic in SE US?

Anaplasma marginale

27
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What demographic is anaplasmosis more severe in?

Older cattle (less frequent in young, more frequent in old)

28
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What are the TWO major mechanisms of transmission of Anaplasma?

1. Tick vector (Dermacentor, Rhipicephalus, Ixodes)

2. Iatrogenic (transfer of blood- reusing needle, etc.)

29
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What THREE things does Anaplasmosis severity depend on?

1. Persistence of organism in RBCs

2. Level of autoimmunization

3. Level of RBC regeneration

30
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What might occur if an animal survives an Anaplasmosis infection?

Chronic carrier

31
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When is a blood smear most helpful in diagnosis of Anaplasma?

Delayed clinical signs of not yet anemic (affected RBCs have not yet been lysed)

32
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Name FIVE major clinical signs of Anaplasmosis.

1. Initial fever

2. Anorexia/decreased milk production

3. Hypoxemia (staggering/neuro)

4. Constipation

5. Icterus

33
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True or False: You should expect hemoglobinuria with anaplasmosis.

False! Anaplasmosis does NOT cause hemoglobinuria, as it involves EXTRAVASCULAR hemolysis.

34
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What is one major way to differentiate water intoxication from anaplasmosis?

Water intox: INTRAvascular hemoglobinuria

Anaplasmosis: EXTRAvascular hemoglobinuria

35
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What is the most basic way to detect/diagnose anaplasmosis?

What is the better way to detect this, as it detects chronic carrier states and the basic way is often inaccurate?

Blood smear

Serology

36
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What are the SIX major treatments/controls for anaplasmosis?

1. Avoid stress

2. Oxytetracycline

3. Chlortetracycline in feed

4. Blood transfusion (band-aid but can be life-saving)

5. Vector control

6. Vaccination

37
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What kind of cow and when is it most susceptible to postparturient hemoglobinuria?

High-producing dairy cow, within 6 weeks of birth

38
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What are the FOUR major clinical signs of postparturient hemoglobinuria?

1. Decreased milk production

2. INTRAvascular hemolysis (anemia) KNOW THIS

3. Jaundice

4. Hemoglobinuria

39
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Explain the pathophysiology of the intravascular hemolysis seen in postparturient hemoglobinuria.

Low P -> low ATP -> not maintain osmotic gradient -> intravascular hemolysis

40
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How can you differentiate hemoglobinuria from hematuria?

Centrifuge (sediment with hematuria)

41
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Explain how animals with postparturient hemoglobinuria becomes hypophosphatemic.

Decrease Ca2+ -> pools Ca2+ out of bone -> pushes P into urine/saliva

42
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What is the proposed mechanism behind postparturient hemoglobinuria?

Hypophosphatemia -> Decreased ATP synthesis by RBCs -> energy depletion and inability to Na+ pump -> INC Na+ rises -> cell swells and lyse

43
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Oxidants or lack of antioxidants may be involved in postparturient hemoglobinuria, so —- and —- deficiency can contribute to disease.

Selenium

Copper

44
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What are the FOUR major treatment steps of postparturient hemoglobinuria?

1. Phosphorus supplement (IV or oral; PHOSPHATES only)

2. Blood transfusion

3. Isotonic fluids (diuresis/renal support)

4. Selenium and Copper supplementation

45
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What is the most common form of copper toxicosis that is associated with excess copper consumption for several months?

Chronic copper toxicosis

46
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In chronic copper toxicosis, —- will appear clinically normal until the hemolytic crisis.

Death usually occurs ——— hours after the hemolytic crisis.

Sheep

24-48

47
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True or False: Chronic copper toxicosis has high morbidity and low mortality.

False! Chronic copper toxicosis has LOW morbidity (<5%) and HIGH mortality (>75%).

48
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What are the SIX major etiologies of chronic copper toxicosis?

1. Forages from high Cu/low Mo soil area

2. Poultry feed

3. Swine feed

4. Cattle and horse feed, mineral blocks, vitamin supplements

5. Copper sulfate foot baths

6. Liver disease

49
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What is the pathophysiology of chronic copper toxicosis?

Excess dietary copper -> accumulate in liver -> lysosomes break down in liver once toxic level reached with STRESS -> Cu released in bloodstream -> Strong oxidizer that leads to INTRAvascular hemolysis

50
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What are the FIVE major clinical signs of copper toxicity?

1. Icterus

2. Lethargy

3. Tachypnea

4. Tachycardia

5. Hemoglobinuria

51
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What are the FIVE major treatments of chronic copper toxicosis?

1. Fluids

2. Transfusion

3. D-Penicillamine

4. Ammonium molybdate/sodium thiosulfate

5. Ammonium tetrathiomolybdate

52
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What THREE things should you do if chronic copper toxicosis impacts your whole flock?

1. ID/eliminate Cu source

2. Sodium molybdate in feed

3. Ground gypsum in feed

53
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What are the THREE major preventions of chronic copper toxicosis?

1. Education/avoidance

2. Spray feed with ammonium molybdate/sodium molybdate if cannot avoid Cu rich or Mo depleted forage

3. Dietary supplementation of vitamin E and selenium if deficient

54
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What are the THREE major categories of inadequate RBC production?

1. Deficiencies in vitamins/minerals needed for RBC production

2. Systemic disease that interfere with erythropoiesis

3. Bone marrow damage/displacement

55
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Name FIVE conditions associated with inadequate RBC production.

1. Iron deficiency anemia

2. Copper deficiency

3. Bracken fern toxicosis

4. Chronic renal failure

5. Myelofibrosis (pygmy goats)

56
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How would you classify anemia of inflammatory disease, also known as anemia of chronic disease?

Non-regenerative normocytic, normochromic

57
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What are THREE major consequences of anemia of inflammatory disease?

1. Decreased iron availability (Fe sequesters to restrain bacterial growth -> HEPCIDIN)

2. Decline in RBC survival

3. Decreased anemia response

58
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Slide 36 placeholder

K

59
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True or False: Blood transfusion is often a permanent therapy.

False! It is a TEMPORARY therapy, as the RBCs are short-lived.

60
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Is matching necessary in ruminants?

Nope

61
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Name TWO reasons why matching is not typically necessary in ruminants.

1. Cattle have large number of blood factors

2. Cross-matching by agglutination does not work

62
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True or False: First transfusions are tolerated well, but subsequent transfusions carry more risk.

True!

63
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What are THREE major indications to perform a blood transfusion?

1. Acute blood loss (PCV <12% over 12-24 hour period)

2. Clinical signs of severe anemia

3. RBC mass below what needed to carry oxygen to tissues

64
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True or False: Animals with chronic blood loss can tolerate a PCV of 8%.

True!

65
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How much blood is safe to remove from a donor and transfuse in a recipient?

How much is safe to transfuse?

10-15 mL/kg body weight

66
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In most instances, you should replace ————-% of lost blood.

20-40%

67
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What is the monitoring/test transfusion rate?

0.1 ml/kg/hr

68
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What should you do if patient experiences anaphylaxis during a transfusion?

Epinephrine (1:1000) at 0.01-0.02 ml/kg