Microbio Final Exam

The material used to vaccinate someone.

vaccine

Injection of a weakened or killed pathogen or of an antigenically active part of a pathogen with the intent of stimulating the adaptive immune system to produce specific antibodies and antigen-specific T cells

active immunization

Injection of antibodies or antiserum into a naive patient to provide immediate, but temporary, protection against a toxin or pathogen or to help a patient coping with certain autoimmune diseases

passive immunization

Pooled IgG extracted from the plasma of many blood donors. The antibodies are delivered intravenously to patients who cannot make their own antibodies.

intravenous immunoglobulin

An antibody that binds to and inactivates microbial exotoxins

antitoxins

4 basic forms of vaccines:

Killed whole cells or inactivated viruses

Live, attenuated bacteria or viruses

Purified components (antigenic subunits) of an infectious agent (acellular or toxoid)

DNA or RNA vaccines encoding a protective antigen

Referring to live but crippled pathogens. Attenuated vaccines contain crippled viruses or bacteria that are injected into a host to stimulate an adaptive immune response

attenuated

A vaccine containing only isolated antigens of a pathogen or fragments of a pathogen containing the antigens.

subunit vaccines

a vaccine containing synthetic antigen made in the lab by the use of recombinant DNA tech

recombination subunit vaccine

a vaccine composed of an inactivated microbial toxin

toxoid vaccine

a vaccine that combines a highly immunogenic protein with a poorly immunogenicity bacterial capsule polysaccharide to boost the immune reaction to the polysaccharide

conjugated vaccines

a vaccine composed of mRNA or DNA whose sequences encode an antigen that can elicit a protective immunity against a specific pathogen

nucleic acid vaccine

a substance that enhances the body’s immune response to a vaccine antigen

adjuvants

the concept that vaccinating a large portion of a population lessens the likelihood that an unvaccinated person will come in contact with and become infected by an infected individual

herd immunity

the minimum number of individuals in a population who must be vaccinated to achieve herd immunity

herd immunity threshold

Which of the following is an example of passive immunization?

A. natural infection

B. live, attenuated vaccine

C. mRNA vaccine

D. breast milk

D

The best protection against a second infection by a pathogen is which of the following?

A. IV immunoglobin

B. subunit vaccine

C. line, attenuated vaccine

D. natural infection

D

The concept whereby unvaccinated people are protected from infection by those in the community who are vaccinated is called _______.

A. passive immunity

B. herd immunity

C. altruistic immunity

D. active immunity

B

The branch of immunology that analyzes the contents of serum.

serology

for a diagnostic test, a parameter that describes how well it can distinguish among closely related targets

specificity

For a diagnostic test, a parameter that describes how small a concentration of a microbe, antibody, or antigen a test can detect if it is present in the sample

sensitivity

The antibody-mediated cross-linking of antigens to form large, insoluble complexes, is used in research labs and is normally seen only in vitro.

immunoprecipitation

A technique in which a ring of precipitation is visualized in an agarose gel impregnated with antibody. Antigen placed within a well diffuses outward until reaching a zone of equivalence where antigen-antibody complexes precipitate and form a ring.

radial immunodiffusion assay (RIA)

A technique for measuring insoluble antigens on whole cells. For example, technicians type ABO blood groups by using antibodies against the A and B antigens and looking for clumping of cells.

agglutination

An antibody conjugated to an enzyme that converts a colorless substrate to a colored product.

enzyme-linked antibody

A set of diagnostic techniques that use enzyme-linked antibodies to detect specific antigens, pathogens, or antibodies.

enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

A set of diagnostic techniques that use enzyme-linked antibodies to detect specific antigens, pathogens, or antibodies.

enzyme immunoassay (EIA)

An immunoassay that detects a specific antigen bound to a microtiter plate with enzyme-conjugated antibodies against that specific antigen and a colorless substrate that the enzyme converts to a colored product.

Direct ELISA

An immunoassay in which an antigen fixed to a plastic surface is used to capture specific antibody from a patient’s serum; a secondary antibody able to bind the captured antibody is added next; the secondary antibody is conjugated either to a fluorescent molecule or to an enzyme that can catalyze a reaction that turns a colorless solution to a colored product

indirect ELISA

an immunoassay designed to capture the antigen of interest between an immobilized anti-target capture antibody and the same or another anti-target antibody in solution

sandwich ELISA

a measure of concentration used to express the effective amount of antibody or antigen; also used to measure viral load

titer

an epitome-specific antibody of a single isotope. it originates from a single antibody-producing B-cell clone

monoclonal antibody

a complex mixture of epitope-specific antibodies directed against the Manu epitopes of an antigen; it is produced after the antigen is injected into a laboratory animal (ex: rabbit). each epitope-specific antibody is made by a different B cell0derived plasma cell

polyclonal antibody

an immortal cell line created by by the fusion of a monoclonal antibody producing B-cell and a myeloma cell

hybridoma

a diagnostic method for detecting microbial pathogens in a patient sample by adding fluoroscently labeled anti-pathogen antibodies to a sample of tissue or fluid (blood, saliva, CSF) and then observing under fluorescence light microscopy to see the now-fluorescent pathogen in the sample

direct immunofluorescence test

a diagnostic method for detecting a-specific anti-pathogen antibodies in a patient by attaching the pathogen to a slide, adding patient serum followed b fluorescently labeled anti-human antibodies, and looking under fluorescence light microscopy for fluorescence, which indicates that the serum contains antibodies agains the pathogen

indirect immunofluoresence test

a technique to detect specific proteins. proteins are subjected to Gell electrophoresis, transferred to a blot, and probed with enzyme-linked of fluorescently tagged antibodies that specifically bind the protein of interest

western blot

a device that can count cells

flow cytometer

a device that use differences in fluorescence to count cells (by flow cytometry) and sort them into fractions

fluroscence-activated cell sorter (FACS)

An Elisa was performed on the sera of 3 patients to detect antibody against hepatitis B virus. Given the titer results shown here, which patient’s serum had the most anti-hepatits B antibody?

A. Patient 1: dilution, 1.30

B. Patient 2: dilution, 1: 1, 350

C. Patient 3: dilution, 1:640

D. There’s not enough information to answer the question.

B

Which of the following is the best method for differentiating a patient’s various T-cell populations and counting the cells in each?

A. agglutination

B. immunofluorescence microscopy

C. FACS

D. ELISA

C

Indirect immunofluorescence microscopy was used to diagnose a patient with syphilis. Which of the following descriptions best represents the process?
A. Tissue form the patient was smeared on a glass slide, and fluorescently labeled anti-syphilis IgG antibody was added

B. Known syphilis organisms were smeared on a glass slide, patient blood serum was added, and then fluorescently labeled anti-human IgG antibody was added.

C. Tissue from the patient was smeared on a glass slide, patient blood serum was added, and then fluorescently labeled anti-syphilis IgG antibody was added.

D. Known syphilis organisms were smeared on glass slide, fluorescently labeled patient blood serum was added, and then anti-syphilis IgG antibody was added.

B

an antigen that causes an allergic hypersensitivity reaction

allergen

Also called immediate hypersensitivity. An IgE-mediated allergic reaction that causes degranulation of mast cells within minutes of exposure to the antigen. The severe reaction known as anaphylaxis is triggered

type I hypersensitivity

An IgE-mediated allergic reaction that causes degranulation of mast cells within minutes of exposure to the antigen. The severe reaction known as anaphylaxis is triggered

immediate hypersensitivity

A type I hypersensitivity reaction that is caused by the introduction of an allergen into the bloodstream, causing sensitized mast cells to release large amounts of histamine and other immune mediators. Responses can include a rapid drop in blood pressure, constriction of the airways, and swelling of the epiglottis.

anaphylaxis

The first stage of type I hypersensitivity, in which a naive patient encounters the allergen, which elicits production of anti-allergen IgE that binds to mast cells, making them reactive to the presence of allergen.

sensitization

A process in which intracellular vesicles (granules) within mast cells, neutrophils, natural killer cells, and cytotoxic T cells release their toxic molecules to the external environment.

degranulation

A cell mediator molecule released by mast cells that dilates blood vessels and causes some of the symptoms associated with type I hypersensitivity.

histamine

raised, fluid filled, itchy welts on the skin

hives

Any of a group of inflammation-mediating lipids that are derived from arachidonic acid secreted by mast cells, macrophages, and other cells; leukotrienes cause smooth-muscle contraction, mucus secretion, and activation of leukocytes, leading to inflammation and allergic-reaction symptoms.

leukotrienes

Any of a group of inflammation-mediating lipid products of arachidonic acid metabolism that are secreted by mast cells activated by an allergen; prostaglandins cause smooth-muscle contraction, mucus secretion, and activation of leukocytes, leading to inflammation and allergic-reaction symptoms.

prostaglandins

A stage of anaphylaxis in which mast cells in the affected area release leukotrienes that cause inflammation and vasoconstriction.

late-phase anaphylaxis

A clinical treatment to decrease allergic reactions by exposing patients to small doses of an allergen.

desensitization

an immune response in which antibodies bind to the patient’s own cell-surface antigens or to foreign antigens adsorbed onto the patients cells. antibody binding triggers cell-mediated cytotoxicity or activation of the complement cascade

type II hypersensitivity

a system that classifies blood on the basis of the antigenic carbohydrates A and B on the surface of red blood cells

ABO blood group system

also known as erthyroblatosis fetalis. a form of type II hypersensitivity caused when an Rh- mother produces antibodies that destroy her Rh+ fetus’ red blood cells

Rh incompatibility disease

also called immune complex disease, an immune response triggered when IgG antibody binds to an excess of soluble foreign antigen in the blood. the immune complexes deposit in small blood vessels, where they interact with complement to initiate an inflammatory response

type III hypersensitivity

a type III hypersensitivity reaction following an injection of animal-derived protein, such as anti-serum or antivenom

serum sickness

also known as delayed-type hypersensitivity, an immune response that develops 24-72 hours after exposure to an antigen that the immune system recognizes as foreign. the response is triggered by antigen specific T-cells. it is delayed because the T cells need time to proliferate after being activated by the allergen

type IV hypersensitivity

which of the following hypersensitivity reactions is antibody-independent?

A) Type I

B) Type II

C) Type III

D) Type IV

D

Omalizumab prevents anaphylaxis by which of the following means?

A) increasing epinephrine production to stop mast cell degranulation

B) killing sensitized mast cells

C) blocking IgE from binding to mast cells

D) contracting smooth muscle around bronchioles

C

In Case History 17.2, Richard, blood type B, needed a blood transfusion. Assume that the blood bank ran out of type B RBC’s. What blood type could be substituted?

A) A
B) B
C) O
D) AB

C

DiGeorge Syndrome

A recessive genetic immunodeficiency disorder causing underdevelopment or complete lack of the thymus, underdevelopment of some facial features, and twitching of extremities.

A disease or disorder of the immune system that is the result of a genetic or developmental error.

primary immunodeficiencies

A disease or disorder of the immune system acquired as a result of infection, radiation treatment, or use of immunosuppressive drugs.

secondary immunodeficiencies

An immunodeficiency in which T-cell responses are absent. There are multiple genetic causes, but SCID is invariably fatal unless T-cell immunity can be restored by transplantation or gene therapy.

severe combined immunodeficiencies

Pooled IgG extracted from the plasma of many blood donors. The antibodies are delivered intravenously to patients who cannot make their own antibodies.

intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG)

A rare genetic disease in which MHC II molecules are absent on antigen-presenting cells, resulting in greatly increased susceptibility to many kinds of infection.

MHC II deficiency (bare lymphocyte syndrome)

A disease in which the body fails to make B cells, owing to mutation in the X-linked BTK gene; the gene product, BTK, is a protein tyrosine kinase essential for normal B-cell development.

X-linked agammaglobulinemia (Bruton’s disease)

Also called adult-onset hypogammaglobulinemia. A disorder characterized by various types of serum immunoglobulin deficiencies, including low levels of serum immunoglobulin isotopes IgG, IgA, and IgE and an impaired ability to produce specific antibodies after antigen exposure

common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

any of a group of genetic disorders characterized by an overproduction of IgM antibodies and a lack of other antibody classes due to defects in class-switching proteins

hyper IgM syndrome

an immunodeficiency disease in which the patient fails to produce IgA but produces relatively normal levels of IgG and IgM

selective IgA deficiency

an immunodeficiency characterized by autosomally inherited defects in the complement pathway, resulting in increased susceptibility to infections with Neisseria and other pyogenic bacteria

complement deficiencies

uncontrolled division of abnormal cells

cancer/neoplasm

referring to tumors that are slow growing or self-contained; they do not spread to infiltrate other tissues

benign

referring to tumors whose cells are undergoing rapid, unchecked growth

malignant

identification of and elimination of tumor cells by the immune system before they become clinically detectable

immune surveillance

a solid tumor found in a lymphoid organ

lymphoma

a disease in which malignant lymphoid cells circulate in the blood or bone marrow

leukemia

a plasma cell tumor found at a single site in the body, typically in the bone or soft tissue; can develop into multiple myeloma

plasmacytoma

a cancerous growth of plasma cells at multiple sites in the body, especially in the bone marrow

multiple myeloma

a B-cell cancer associated with Epstein-Barr infection

Burkitt’s lymphoma

a non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma in which the BCL2 gene translocates near an immunoglobulin heavy chain promoter, causing an over expression of BCL2, which prevents cell death

follicular lumphoma

the common type of leukemia, it is a B-cell cancer often associated with an abnormality in specific mirco-RNA production

chronic lymphocytic leukemia

a cancer of the lymphocytes sometimes associated with prior infectious mononucleosis caused by Epstein-Barr virus and characterized by the presence of Reed Sternberg cells

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

any lymphoma that does not contain Reed-Sternberg cells and thus is not a Hodgkin’s lymphoma

non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

The most common form of severe combined immunodeficiency is due to ____.

A) adenosine deaminase deficiency

B) diminished production of IL-2

C) decreased surface CD40 ligand (CD40L or CD154)

D) lack of IL-2 receptor

D

A 1-month-old child with a low WBC count, low-set ears, a cleft palate, and an underdeveloped thymus most likely has which one of the following?

A) IgA deficiency

B) X-linked ammaglobulinemia

C) DiGeorge syndrome

D) Bare lymphocyte syndrome

C

Treatment of patients who have X-linked agammaglobulinemia includes which one the following?

A) IV administration of immunoglobulin

B) Thymus transplant

C) T-cell transfusion

D) B-cell transfusion

A

a pathology caused by lymphocytes that can react to self-antigens

autoimmune response

An autoimmune disease caused by a form of type III hypersensitivity that damages the patient’s own tissues.

systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

An autoimmune disorder in which an excess of thyroid hormone is produced, causing hyperthyroidism.

Graves disease

A type of hypothyroid disease caused by an autoimmune disorder in which antibodies and T cells destroy self thyroid cells.

Hashimoto’s disease

An autoimmune disease characterized by severe muscle weakness; it is caused by autoantibodies against acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junctions.

Myasthenia gravis

A chronic systemic disease caused by abnormal plasma glucose levels due to faulty glucose metabolism.

diabetes

A chronic autoimmune disease causing inflammation and pain in many joints, especially those of the hands and feet.

Rheumatoid arthritis

Transplanted tissue from a donor with MHC genes different from those of the recipient. Unless the recipient is immunosuppressed, the transplant is rejected.

allograft

a medical complication following a transplant between two genetically different people in which immune cells within the donor tissue attack the recipient’s host tissue

graft- versus- host disease (GVHD)

Autoantibodies are formed when ____.

A) an autoantibody-producing B cell presents a non self epitope to a Tfh cell

B) T and B cells that are auto reactive to the same self-antigen escape negative selection

C) a B cell undergoes isotope switching

D) a super antigen activates an autoantibody-producing B cell

A