Blood Comp Flashcards

*Question: What is the standard anticoagulant used in blood banking to maintain RBC viability?

A) Heparin

B) Acid Citrate Dextrose

C) Citrate Phosphate Dextrose

D) Sodium EDTA

*Answer: C) Citrate Phosphate Dextrose

*Question: What is the AC:BV ratio used in blood banking?

A) 1:4

B) 1:6

C) 1:8

D) 1:10

*Answer: C) 1:8

*Question: Which anticoagulant is used exclusively for bypass surgery?

A) CPD

B) CPDA-1

C) ACD

D) Heparin

*Answer: D) Heparin

*Question: What is the shelf life of whole blood collected in CPDA-1?

A) 21 days

B) 28 days

C) 35 days

D) 42 days

*Answer: C) 35 days

*Question: Which anticoagulant preservative is specifically used for apheresis?

A) CPD

B) CP2D

C) ACD

D) CPDA-1

*Answer: C) ACD

*Question: What spin type produces Platelet-Rich Plasma (PRP)?

A) Hard spin

B) Soft spin

C) Double spin

D) High-speed spin

*Answer: B) Soft spin

*Question: What spin type produces Platelet-Poor Plasma (PPP)?

A) Soft spin

B) Light spin

C) Hard spin

D) Continuous spin

*Answer: C) Hard spin

*Question: What are the centrifuge conditions for separating RBC and plasma (hard spin)?

A) 2,000 × g for 3 minutes

B) 5,000 × g for 5 minutes

C) 5,000 × g for 7 minutes

D) 2,000 × g for 7 minutes

*Answer: B) 5,000 × g for 5 minutes

*Question: What are the centrifuge conditions for harvesting platelets or cryoprecipitate from plasma?

A) 2,000 × g for 3 minutes

B) 5,000 × g for 5 minutes

C) 2,000 × g for 7 minutes

D) 5,000 × g for 7 minutes

*Answer: D) 5,000 × g for 7 minutes

*Question: What are the centrifuge conditions for separating RBC and platelet-rich plasma (soft spin)?

A) 2,000 × g for 3 minutes

B) 5,000 × g for 5 minutes

C) 5,000 × g for 7 minutes

D) 2,000 × g for 7 minutes

*Answer: A) 2,000 × g for 3 minutes

*Question: Which additive solution extends RBC shelf life to 42 days and is manufactured by Baxter?

A) AS-3

B) AS-5

C) AS-7

D) AS-1

*Answer: D) AS-1

*Question: All additive solutions contain which base components?

A) Saline, Adenine, Glucose

B) Saline, Adenine, Glycerol

C) Citrate, Phosphate, Dextrose

D) Saline, Phosphate, Glucose

*Answer: A) Saline, Adenine, Glucose

*Question: Which additive solution contains citrate and phosphate instead of mannitol?

A) AS-1

B) AS-3

C) AS-5

D) AS-7

*Answer: B) AS-3

*Question: What is the purpose of adenine in blood preservation?

A) Prevents bacterial growth

B) Chelates calcium

C) Maintains 2,3-DPG levels

D) Provides substrate for ATP synthesis

*Answer: D) Provides substrate for ATP synthesis

*Question: What is the function of phosphate in blood additive contents?

A) Chelates calcium to prevent clotting

B) Serves as food for cells

C) Source of 2,3-DPG to off-load oxygen to tissues

D) Increases ADP levels

*Answer: C) Source of 2,3-DPG to off-load oxygen to tissues

*Question: What is the FDA requirement for 24-hour post-transfusion RBC survival?

A) More than 50%

B) More than 65%

C) More than 75%

D) More than 85%

*Answer: C) More than 75%

*Question: At the end of the allowed storage time, what percentage of RBCs must remain viable?

A) 60%

B) 70%

C) 75%

D) 80%

*Answer: B) 70%

*Question: RBC integrity is considered compromised when free hemoglobin exceeds what percentage of total hemoglobin?

A) 0.5%

B) 1%

C) 2%

D) 5%

*Answer: B) 1%

*Question: What is the purpose of the Rejuvenating Solution (Rejuvesol)?

A) Extends shelf life by removing leukocytes

B) Restores ATP and 2,3-DPG

C) Prevents bacterial contamination

D) Chelates excess calcium

*Answer: B) Restores ATP and 2,3-DPG

*Question: What is the content of Rejuvesol?

A) Saline-Adenine-Glucose-Mannitol

B) Citrate-Phosphate-Dextrose-Adenine

C) Phosphate-Inosine-Glucose-Pyruvate-Adenine

D) Saline-Inosine-Glucose-Adenine

*Answer: C) Phosphate-Inosine-Glucose-Pyruvate-Adenine

*Question: What is the storage temperature for whole blood and packed RBCs?

A) 1-6°C

B) 4-8°C

C) 20-24°C

D) −18°C

*Answer: A) 1-6°C

*Question: What is the transport temperature for whole blood?

A) 1-6°C

B) 1-10°C

C) 4-8°C

D) 20-24°C

*Answer: B) 1-10°C

*Question: Which two blood components are stored at room temperature (20-24°C)?

A) Whole blood and plasma

B) Granulocytes and cryoprecipitate

C) Platelets and granulocytes

D) Platelets and FFP

*Answer: C) Platelets and granulocytes

*Question: What is the key difference in storage conditions between platelets and granulocytes at room temperature?

A) Platelets require refrigeration; granulocytes do not

B) Granulocytes require constant agitation; platelets do not

C) Platelets require constant agitation; granulocytes do not

D) Both require constant agitation

*Answer: C) Platelets require constant agitation; granulocytes do not

*Question: What is the shelf life of a single unit of platelets?

A) 3 days

B) 4 days

C) 5 days

D) 7 days

*Answer: C) 5 days

*Question: Why does the shelf life of pooled platelets decrease to 4 hours?

A) They are stored at a higher temperature

B) They are prepared using an open system allowing potential contamination

C) Pooling activates platelets immediately

D) Pooled platelets lack an additive solution

*Answer: B) They are prepared using an open system allowing potential contamination

*Question: What is the most likely blood component to be contaminated with bacteria?

A) Fresh Frozen Plasma

B) Packed Red Blood Cells

C) Platelets

D) Cryoprecipitate

*Answer: C) Platelets

*Question: What is the minimum platelet count required from a donor for plateletpheresis?

A) 100 × 10³/µL

B) 150 × 10³/µL

C) 200 × 10³/µL

D) 250 × 10³/µL

*Answer: B) 150 × 10³/µL

*Question: One Single Donor Platelet (SDP) is equivalent to how many Random Platelet Concentrates?

A) 2-4

B) 4-6

C) 6-10

D) 10-12

*Answer: C) 6-10

*Question: What is the minimum platelet count required in a Single Donor Platelet (SDP) product?

A) 1.0 × 10¹¹

B) 2.0 × 10¹¹

C) 3.0 × 10¹¹

D) 5.5 × 10¹⁰

*Answer: C) 3.0 × 10¹¹

*Question: Why must donors abstain from aspirin at least 3 days before plateletpheresis?

A) Aspirin causes rouleaux formation

B) Aspirin inhibits cyclooxygenase, impairing platelet function

C) Aspirin reduces platelet count below acceptable levels

D) Aspirin causes citrate toxicity

*Answer: B) Aspirin inhibits cyclooxygenase, impairing platelet function

*Question: What is the maximum donation frequency for plateletpheresis?

A) Once per week or 12 times per year

B) Twice per week or 24 times per year

C) Three times per week or 36 times per year

D) Once per month or 12 times per year

*Answer: B) Twice per week or 24 times per year

*Question: What is the minimum donation interval for plasmapheresis?

A) 24 hours

B) 48 hours

C) 72 hours

D) 7 days

*Answer: B) 48 hours

*Question: Which tests must be performed on a plasma donor's sample to screen for disqualifying conditions?

A) CBC and blood culture

B) Total protein and SPE or Ig quantitation

C) ABO typing and crossmatch

D) Hemoglobin and hematocrit

*Answer: B) Total protein and SPE or Ig quantitation

*Question: Increased plasma protein levels causing rouleaux formation are associated with which diseases?

A) Dengue fever and malaria

B) Waldenström's Macroglobulinemia and Multiple Myeloma

C) Hemophilia A and von Willebrand disease

D) Polycythemia vera and leukemia

*Answer: B) Waldenström's Macroglobulinemia and Multiple Myeloma

*Question: What agent is used in leukapheresis to sediment RBCs and prevent them from contaminating the WBC harvest?

A) Acid Citrate Dextrose

B) Glycerol

C) Hydroxyethyl Starch (HES)

D) Mannitol

*Answer: C) Hydroxyethyl Starch (HES)

*Question: Why are corticosteroids given to donors before leukapheresis?

A) To prevent citrate toxicity

B) To mobilize WBCs from the marginal pool into circulation

C) To increase RBC production

D) To reduce platelet aggregation

*Answer: B) To mobilize WBCs from the marginal pool into circulation

*Question: What are the height and weight requirements for female donors in erythrocytapheresis?

A) ≥5'3", ≥130 lbs

B) ≥5'5", ≥150 lbs

C) ≥5'1", ≥120 lbs

D) ≥5'5", ≥130 lbs

*Answer: B) ≥5'5", ≥150 lbs

*Question: What is the standard RBC mass collected during erythrocytapheresis?

A) 100-150 mL

B) 150-180 mL

C) 180-200 mL

D) 250-300 mL

*Answer: C) 180-200 mL

*Question: What is the most common adverse effect of apheresis?

A) Hemolysis

B) Vasovagal reaction

C) Citrate toxicity

D) Allergic reaction

*Answer: C) Citrate toxicity

*Question: Why is milk given to donors after apheresis?

A) To replace glucose lost during the procedure

B) To replenish calcium chelated by the ACD anticoagulant

C) To restore plasma protein levels

D) To prevent bacterial contamination

*Answer: B) To replenish calcium chelated by the ACD anticoagulant

*Question: Which apheresis method is the fastest, taking approximately 1 hour?

A) Intermittent flow centrifugation one-arm

B) Intermittent flow centrifugation two-arm

C) Continuous flow centrifugation

D) Filtration pheresis

*Answer: C) Continuous flow centrifugation

*Question: What disease is treated by therapeutic cytapheresis due to increased production of RBCs, WBCs, and platelets?

A) Multiple myeloma

B) Waldenström's macroglobulinemia

C) Polycythemia vera

D) Dengue hemorrhagic fever

*Answer: C) Polycythemia vera

*Question: What is the diversion pouch also called?

A) Transfer bag

B) Satellite bag

C) Primary bag

D) Tertiary bag

*Answer: B) Satellite bag

*Question: How much blood does the diversion pouch collect first?

A) 5-10 mL

B) 10-20 mL

C) 20-30 mL

D) 30-50 mL

*Answer: C) 20-30 mL

*Question: What is the primary reason for using a diversion pouch during blood collection?

A) To collect excess plasma for testing

B) To reduce contamination risk by diverting the first 20-30 mL

C) To store additive solutions

D) To allow filtration of leukocytes

*Answer: B) To reduce contamination risk by diverting the first 20-30 mL

*Question: Which skin disinfection protocol is used in blood banking before venipuncture?

A) Alcohol only

B) Iodine only

C) Alcohol → Iodine → Alcohol

D) Iodine → Alcohol → Iodine

*Answer: C) Alcohol → Iodine → Alcohol

*Question: What is the normal flora most commonly found on the skin during blood collection?

A) Staphylococcus aureus

B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C) Staphylococcus epidermidis

D) Streptococcus pyogenes

*Answer: C) Staphylococcus epidermidis

*Question: What is the indications for transfusion of Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP)?

A) Symptomatic anemia with normal blood volume

B) Coagulation factor deficiency with massive bleeding

C) Thrombocytopenia in dengue patients

D) Neutropenia unresponsive to antibiotics

*Answer: B) Coagulation factor deficiency with massive bleeding

*Question: At what temperature and for how long is FFP thawed before transfusion?

A) 4°C for 24 hours

B) 20-24°C for 1 hour

C) 30-37°C for 30-45 minutes

D) 37-40°C for 15 minutes

*Answer: C) 30-37°C for 30-45 minutes

*Question: If FFP is thawed but not transfused within 24 hours, it is relabeled as what and is good for how many additional days?

A) Liquid plasma; 3 days

B) Thawed plasma; 5 days total

C) Recovered plasma; 7 days

D) Source plasma; 2 days

*Answer: B) Thawed plasma; 5 days total

*Question: What is the shelf life of FFP stored at less than −18°C?

A) 6 months

B) 1 year

C) 5 years

D) 7 years

*Answer: B) 1 year

*Question: What is the shelf life of FFP stored at less than −65°C?

A) 1 year

B) 3 years

C) 5 years

D) 7 years

*Answer: D) 7 years

*Question: Which coagulation factors are considered labile and found in FFP?

A) Factors II and X

B) Factors VII and IX

C) Factors V and VIII

D) Factors XI and XIII

*Answer: C) Factors V and VIII

*Question: What is the largest component found in cryoprecipitate?

A) Factor VIII

B) Fibrinogen

C) Factor XIII

D) von Willebrand Factor (VWF)

*Answer: D) von Willebrand Factor (VWF)

*Question: What is the minimum amount of fibrinogen required in one unit of cryoprecipitate?

A) 80 mg

B) 100 mg

C) 150 mg

D) 200 mg

*Answer: C) 150 mg

*Question: What is the minimum amount of Factor VIII required in one unit of cryoprecipitate?

A) 40 IU

B) 60 IU

C) 80 IU

D) 100 IU

*Answer: C) 80 IU

*Question: At what temperature is FFP thawed to produce cryoprecipitate?

A) 20-24°C

B) 30-37°C

C) 1-6°C

D) −18°C

*Answer: C) 1-6°C

*Question: What is the expiration of cryoprecipitate once thawed?

A) 1 hour

B) 4 hours

C) 6 hours

D) 24 hours

*Answer: C) 6 hours

*Question: What is the expiration of pooled cryoprecipitate?

A) 1 hour

B) 2 hours

C) 4 hours

D) 6 hours

*Answer: C) 4 hours

*Question: What is the volume of one unit of cryoprecipitate?

A) 5 mL

B) 10 mL

C) 15 mL

D) 25 mL

*Answer: C) 15 mL

*Question: Cryoprecipitate combined with thrombin creates what product?

A) Cryosupernatant

B) Fibrin glue/sealant

C) Plasma protein fraction

D) Factor VIII concentrate

*Answer: B) Fibrin glue/sealant

*Question: What is the primary indication for washed red blood cells?

A) History of febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions

B) Graft-vs-host disease prevention

C) Severe allergic reaction due to plasma proteins including IgA deficiency

D) Cytomegalovirus prevention

*Answer: C) Severe allergic reaction due to plasma proteins including IgA deficiency

*Question: What percentage of RBCs is lost during the washing process for washed RBCs?

A) 10%

B) 15%

C) 20%

D) 25%

*Answer: C) 20%

*Question: What is the most common immunodeficiency in blood banking practice?

A) Common variable immunodeficiency

B) Selective IgA deficiency

C) X-linked agammaglobulinemia

D) DiGeorge syndrome

*Answer: B) Selective IgA deficiency

*Question: What is the primary purpose of irradiating blood components?

A) To eliminate bacteria

B) To prevent Graft-vs-Host Disease by stopping donor T-cell proliferation

C) To remove leukocytes

D) To extend shelf life

*Answer: B) To prevent Graft-vs-Host Disease by stopping donor T-cell proliferation

*Question: Which radioisotopes are used in blood irradiation?

A) Iodine-131 or Technetium-99

B) Cesium-137 or Cobalt-60

C) Radium-226 or Uranium-235

D) Phosphorus-32 or Strontium-90

*Answer: B) Cesium-137 or Cobalt-60

*Question: What is the shelf life of irradiated red blood cells?

A) 14 days

B) 21 days

C) 28 days

D) 35 days

*Answer: C) 28 days

*Question: How is it confirmed that a blood bag has been fully irradiated?

A) Gram stain of the bag contents

B) Radiochromic film (white turns black after gamma exposure)

C) UV light exposure test

D) pH strip reading

*Answer: B) Radiochromic film (white turns black after gamma exposure)

*Question: What is the shelf life of frozen RBCs?

A) 1 year

B) 5 years

C) 7 years

D) 10 years

*Answer: D) 10 years

*Question: After deglycerolization of frozen RBCs, what is the remaining shelf life?

A) 6 hours

B) 12 hours

C) 24 hours

D) 48 hours

*Answer: C) 24 hours

*Question: What concentration of glycerol is used in the High Glycerol freezing method?

A) 10% w/v

B) 20% w/v

C) 30% w/v

D) 40% w/v

*Answer: D) 40% w/v

*Question: The High Glycerol method stores frozen RBCs at what maximum temperature?

A) −18°C

B) −40°C

C) −65°C

D) −120°C

*Answer: C) −65°C

*Question: The Low Glycerol method stores frozen RBCs at what maximum temperature?

A) −65°C

B) −80°C

C) −100°C

D) −120°C

*Answer: D) −120°C

*Question: Which cryoprotectants are classified as penetrating agents that enter the RBC?

A) Hydroxyethyl starch and glucose

B) Glycerol and DMSO

C) PVP and mannitol

D) Albumin and dextran

*Answer: B) Glycerol and DMSO

*Question: What is the deglycerolization washing sequence used to remove glycerol from frozen RBCs?

A) 0.9% → 1.6% → 12% saline

B) 12% → 1.6% → 0.9% saline with 0.2% dextrose

C) 3% → 0.9% → 0.45% saline

D) 10% → 5% → 0.9% saline

*Answer: B) 12% → 1.6% → 0.9% saline with 0.2% dextrose

*Question: Why is dextrose included in the last deglycerolization wash?

A) To chelate residual calcium

B) To serve as an energy source (ATP) for red blood cells

C) To restore 2,3-DPG levels

D) To prevent bacterial growth

*Answer: B) To serve as an energy source (ATP) for red blood cells

*Question: What condition most commonly requires frozen RBCs due to extreme blood type rarity?

A) Sickle cell disease

B) Thalassemia major

C) Bombay phenotype

D) Rh null phenotype

*Answer: C) Bombay phenotype

*Question: What is the minimum RBC retention required after leukoreduction?

A) 70%

B) 75%

C) 80%

D) 85%

*Answer: D) 85%

*Question: What is the WBC limit for leukoreduced pRBCs?

A) 8.3 × 10⁵

B) 5 × 10⁶

C) 5 × 10⁷

D) 1 × 10⁸

*Answer: B) 5 × 10⁶

*Question: Why is pre-storage leukoreduction preferred over post-storage leukoreduction?

A) It is less expensive and faster

B) It removes WBCs before cytokines accumulate, preventing febrile reactions

C) It retains more RBCs than post-storage methods

D) It is required by FDA regulations

*Answer: B) It removes WBCs before cytokines accumulate, preventing febrile reactions

*Question: Which leukoreduction method also removes Biologic Response Modifiers (BRM)?

A) Post-storage leukoreduction

B) Pre-storage leukoreduction

C) Saline washing

D) Inverted centrifugation

*Answer: B) Pre-storage leukoreduction

*Question: What is the most common leukoreduction method used in blood banking?

A) Saline washing

B) Double centrifugation

C) Filtration using Hylyer filter paper

D) Inverted centrifugation

*Answer: C) Filtration using Hylyer filter paper

*Question: When transfusing whole blood to a normovolemic (normal blood volume) patient, what dangerous complication can occur?

A) Disseminated intravascular coagulation

B) Graft-vs-Host disease

C) Transfusion-Associated Circulatory Overload (TACO)

D) Citrate toxicity

*Answer: C) Transfusion-Associated Circulatory Overload (TACO)

*Question: What is the primary indication for granulocyte transfusion?

A) Severe thrombocytopenia unresponsive to platelet transfusion

B) Neutropenia with documented gram-negative infection unresponsive to antibiotics

C) Viral infections in immunocompromised patients

D) Anemia in oncology patients

*Answer: B) Neutropenia with documented gram-negative infection unresponsive to antibiotics

*Question: What color change in a blood bag's plasma always indicates rejection of the unit?

A) Greenish hue

B) Yellowish tint

C) Milky appearance

D) Purplish discoloration

*Answer: D) Purplish discoloration

*Question: Purplish discoloration of blood bag plasma is associated with which organism?

A) Staphylococcus aureus

B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C) Escherichia coli

D) Staphylococcus epidermidis

*Answer: B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

*Question: What is the time limit most facilities set for accepting a blood unit back for reissuance after it has left the blood bank?

A) 15 minutes

B) 30 minutes

C) 45 minutes

D) 60 minutes

*Answer: B) 30 minutes

*Question: What is the most critical step in blood transfusion administration?

A) Checking expiration date of blood bag

B) Verifying ABO compatibility

C) Positive patient identification

D) Performing crossmatch

*Answer: C) Positive patient identification

*Question: Which intravenous solution is the only one compatible for co-administration with blood components?

A) Lactated Ringer's solution

B) 5% Dextrose in water

C) Normal Saline (0.9% NaCl)

D) Dextrose in saline

*Answer: C) Normal Saline (0.9% NaCl)

*Question: Blood must be infused within how many hours to prevent bacterial proliferation and hemolysis?

A) 2 hours

B) 4 hours

C) 6 hours

D) 8 hours

*Answer: B) 4 hours

*Question: What international labeling standard incorporating barcoded labels is used in blood banking?

A) ISBT 64

B) ISBT 96

C) ISBT 128

D) ISBT 256

*Answer: C) ISBT 128

*Question: Which plasma component contains no coagulation factors and is given only for low blood volume?

A) FFP

B) PF24

C) Cryoprecipitate

D) Cryosupernatant

*Answer: D) Cryosupernatant

*Question: What is the hematocrit requirement for both male and female donors in erythrocytapheresis?

A) At least 35%

B) At least 38%

C) At least 40%

D) At least 45%

*Answer: C) At least 40%

*Question: Hemolysis found in both the blood bag and the segment during donor inspection indicates what?

A) Traumatic tap; unit can still be used

B) Physiological discoloration; acceptable

C) True contamination or hemolysis; unit must be rejected

D) Normal finding after prolonged storage

*Answer: C) True contamination or hemolysis; unit must be rejected