Patho (Resp + Renal + GI)

Ventilation, Perfusion

what are the two things that alveolar gas exchange requires

shunting

impaired ventilation can cause what

alveolar dead space

impaired perfusion can cause what

central chemoreceptors

what respond to levels of CO2 in the blood by adjusting rate and depth of respiration?

Peripheral chemoreceptors

what respond to decreased O2

Compliance

what is described as how easily lungs can expand

Elastance

what is how easily lungs snap back to original size

Resistance

what is an opposition to air flow?

negative pressure

what kind of pressure is required in the lungs for air to flow in?

Restrictive lung disease

what disorder decrease the max volume that the lungs can hold?

Atelactasis

what is a collapse of the alveoli called

Diminished breath sounds

what is the S&S for atelactasis

pneumonia

atelactasis increases the risk of what disease

incentive spirometer, CPAP, High flow NC

what are the three treatments for atelactasis

Pneumonia

what is an infection of the lung alveoli called

WBC, sputum culture, CXR, ABG's

what are the four Dx's for pneumonia

Aspiration

what is the the type of pneumonia that can occur d/t inhaled food, gastric contents

decreased LOC, decreased gag reflex, NG feedings, GERD, Infants

what are the five risk factors for Aspiration Pneumonia

Dyspnea, bronchospasms, cyanosis, possible wheezing

what are the S&S's for pneumonia

poverty, HIV, malnutrition, poor medical care, poor hygiene, crowded conditions

what are the six risk factors for tuberculosis

hemoptysis, weight loss, night sweats

what is the classic triad for active TB

CXR, sputum culture

what are the two ways to diagnose active TB

Pleural effusion

what disorder is described as increased fluid in the pleural cavity?

HF, atelactasis, pneumonia

what are the three things that pleural effusion is d/t

Chest tube

what is the treatment for pleural effusion

Pneumothorax

what is it called when air enters the pleural space causing breathing problems

Cyanosis, decreased tactile fremitus, hyperresonance

what are the three S&S's of pneumothorax

Open

which type of pneumothorax is described as air from outside or "sucking chest wound"

Closed

Which type of pneumothorax is described as air from inside the lung

traumatic, spontaneous

what are the two types of closed pneumothorax's

penetrating or blunt

a closed traumatic pneumothorax is differentiated between what two things

primary, secondary

a clased spontaneous pneumothorax is differentiated between what two things

Needle decompression, Chest tube, Restores negative pressure

what are the tree treatments for a pneumothorax

Tension Pneumothorax

what is it called when there is air continuously leaking in during inspiration but cannot exit on expiration

respiratory distress, decreased BP, JVD

what are the three S&S's of a tension pneumothorax

Pulmonary Edema

What is a large buildup of fluid in the lungs

SOB, Cough, Chest pain, fatigue

what are the four S&S's of Pulmonary edema

supplemental oxygen, Diuretics

what are the two treatments for Pulmonary edema

Obstructive lung disease

what disorder is described as an inflammation problem with limitation of airflow in and out of the lungs

Emphysema, Chronic Bronchitis

What are the two things that must be present for one to be considered to have COPD

Chronic Bronchitis

what is a recurrent inflammation/infection of the mucosal linings of the airways

blue bloater, consistent nagging cough

what are the two S&S's of chronic bronchitis

Smoking

what is the most common cause of emphysema

dyspnea, weight loss, barrel chest, decreased BBS

what are the four S&S's of emphysema

Asthma

what is the disorder that is due to bronchoconstriction, mucosal wall edema, and thick mucous

PFT's, increased IgE, ABG's, CXR

What are the four things done to diagnose Asthma

O2, bronchodilators, anti-inflammatory

what are the three treatments for asthma

Pulmonary embolism

what is an obstruction of pulmonary capillaries leading to dead space

spiral CT, D-Dimer

what are the two things done to diagnose a Pulmonary embolism

fibrinolytic drugs, embolectomy

what are the two things done to treat a pulmonary embolism

mental confusion, petechiae, fever

what are the three S&S's of a fatty pulmonary embolism

indwelling catheters, environment, hygiene, neurogenic bladder, obstruction

what are the 5 Predisposing factors for UTI's

Cystitis

what is a bladder ifnection called

Dysuria, urgency/frequency, suprapubic pain

what are the three S&S's of a lower UTI

Pyelonephritis

what is a kidney infection called

costovertebral angle tenderness, flank pain, N/V, fever, chills, increased WBC's

what are the six S&S's of an Upper UTI

antibiotics

what is the treatment for UTI's

Acute Glomerulonephritis

what is an antigen antibody complex that clogs up the glomeruli leading to fluid and waste retention

HTN, hematuria, oliguria, edema

what are the four S&S's of acute glomerulonephritis

UTI, Hydronephrosis, bladder damage, AKI

what are the four complications of Benign prostatic hyperplasia

Calcium, uric acid

what are the two components of kidney stones

dehydration, UTI, immobility, Gout, increased Vit C

what are the five predisposing factors for kidney stones

pain, N/V, fever, chills, hematuria, oliguria

what are the six S&S's of kidney stones,

IV fluids ,ketorolac, lithotripsy, surgery, strain urine

What are the five treatments for kidney stones

Acute kidney injury

which disorder is described as the inability to balance H2O & excrete waste

Oliguric, diuresis, recovery

what are the three phases of AKI

Azotemia

urea in the blood

hypovolemia, HF, blocked renal artery, shock

what are the four causes of pre-renal AKI

acute tubular necrosis

what is the most common cause of intra-renal AKI

calculi, BPH, reflux, tumors

what are the four causes of Post-renal AKI

Osteodystrophy, anemia, bleeding/infection, neuro changes, uremia

what are the five complications of CKD

Osteodystrophy

What is the disorder where there is not enough vitamin D, and activated calcium is not absorbed, triggering PTH release

increased calcium/vitamin D, decreased phosphorus

what are the treatments for osteodystrophy

Aranesp, iron, folic acid

what are the three treatments for Anemia

hematuria, yellow/dry skin, pruritus, anorexia, N/V

what are the five S&S's of uremia

GERD

what is the chronic condition where stomach acid or bile flows back into the esophagus, irritating the lining

Heartburn, regurgitation

what are the two S&S's for GERD

obesity, pregnancy

what are two risk factors for GERD

Esophagitis leading to Esophageal ulcers

what is the main complication of GERD

Peptic Ulcer disease

what is the disorder where there is a formation of ulcers in the stomach or the duodenum

H. Pylori, NSAIDs, excess stomach acid, stress, spicy food

what are the five causes of PUD

Crohn's disease, Ulcerative colitis

what are the two types of IBD

Crohn's disease

what is the disease that can affect any part of the GI tract involving all layers of the bowel wall

immune system disfunction, genetics, environmental factors

what are the three causes/risk factors of IBD

Gut pain, diarrhea, abdominal pain, cramping

what are the four S&S's of IBD

Ulcerative colitis

what is the disease that affects only the colon and rectum involving the innermost lining of the colon

Hepatitis

what is the inflammation of the liver which may be acute or chronic