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What pattern of disease occurrence is described by an increase in reported cases of COVID-19 in a local city over a month?
A. Epidemic
B. Pandemic
C. Endemic
D. Sporadic
A. Epidemic
Which form of cellular respiration, if prolonged, can lead to metabolic acidosis?
A. Aerobic respiration
B. Anaerobic respiration
C. Oxidative phosphorylation
D. Glycolysis
B. Anaerobic respiration
What initial diagnosis tool would be included in the plan of care for a client with chest pain and dizziness?
A. Electrocardiogram (EKG)
B. Chest x-ray
C. CT scan
D. Blood work
A. Electrocardiogram (EKG)
Who should be included when initially speaking to a client with a possible diagnosis of cerebral atrophy?
A. Caregiver or family member
B. Primary physician
C. Physical therapist
D. Psychiatrist
A. Caregiver or family member
What nursing intervention would be included for a client with chronic pancreatitis based on the pathophysiology of the disease?
A. Administration of IV fluids
B. Placement of a nasogastric tube (NGT)
C. Administration of stool softeners
D. Increase PO intake
A. Administration of IV fluids
What medication would be included in the treatment plan for a client with cerebral atrophy?
A. Cholinesterase inhibitors
B. Opioids
C. Beta blockers
D. ACE inhibitors
A. Cholinesterase inhibitors
What is a classic clinical manifestation of acromegaly?
A. Joint pain
B. Hair loss
C. Dental caries
D. Vision disturbances
A. Joint pain
What initial diagnosis tool would the nurse anticipate for a client with a diagnosis of cerebral atrophy?
A. MRI of the head
B. CT scan of the head
C. PET scan of the head
D. X-ray of the head
B. CT scan of the head
Which intervention would help to prevent falls in an elderly patient with rheumatoid arthritis (RA)?
A. Maintain strict bedrest
B. Use of assistance devices
C. Limit any physical activity
D. Increase in pain management
B. Use of assistance devices
This teaching intervention for a postpartum mother on self-breast examinations is an example of which level of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary
B. Secondary
These findings of right knee pain and redness after a fall are best described as which of the following clinical manifestations?
A. Local
B. Systemic
C. Chronic
D. Secondary
A. Local
What term best describes the localized redness and swelling at the site of a recently placed peripheral IV catheter?
A. Idiopathic
B. Nosocomial
C. Iatrogenic
D. Congenital
C. Iatrogenic
Which function of the plasma membrane enables the cell to control the movement of ions, nutrients, and waste products?
A. Selective permeability
B. Cell Recognition
C. Facilitated diffusion
D. Cell Signaling
A. Selective permeability
What is a form of endocytosis that involves the cell taking in extracellular fluid and small dissolved molecules?
A. Osmosis
B. Phagocytosis
C. Pinocytosis
D. Facilitated Diffusion
C. Pinocytosis
Why is ATP required for certain types of cellular transport?
A. To move from high concentration to low concentration
B. To move substances against their concentration gradient
C. To maintain selective permeability of the plasma membrane
D. To transport substances across the membrane by diffusion
B. To move substances against their concentration gradient
Which statement best describes endocrine signaling?
A. Cells communicate with adjacent cells through gap junctions
B. Chemical messengers act only on the cell that released them
C. Hormones are released into the bloodstream to affect distant target cells
D. Neurotransmitters are released across a synaptic cleft
C. Hormones are released into the bloodstream to affect distant target cells
Which outcome best represents cellular differentiation?
A. A stem cell becoming a neuron
B. Increased mitosis in damaged tissue
C. Increased ATP production
D. Necrosis
B. Increased mitosis in damaged tissue
Which of the following are clinical manifestations of cardiac hypertrophy?
A. Shortness of breath and chest pain
B. Tachycardia and fever
C. Dizziness and tachycardia
D. Nausea and vomiting
A. Shortness of breath and chest pain
By which process is a surgical wound with well-approximated edges and minimal tissue loss most likely healing?
A. Secondary intention
B. Primary intention
C. Tertiary intention
D. Delayed wound healing
B. Primary intention
What is the most common cause of acromegaly?
A. Benign pituitary tumor
B. Excessive production of thyroid hormones
C. Decrease in growth hormones
D. Recent brain surgery
B. Excessive production of thyroid hormones
What is the cellular process in acromegaly? (SATA)
A. Metaplasia
B. Hyperplasia
C. Atrophy
D. Hypertrophy
B. Hyperplasia
D. Hypertrophy
Which disorder is cerebral atrophy associated with?
A. Myocarditis
B. Scoliosis
C. Alzheimer's disease
D. Stroke
C. Alzheimer's disease
A nurse is caring for a client with chronic gastritis. The nurse is aware that a risk factor of chronic gastritis may include:
A. Chronic alcoholism
B. Crohn's disease
C. Acute gastritis
D. Peptic ulcer disease (PUD)
A. Chronic alcoholism
What response is triggered when the second line of defense is initiated?
A. Inflammation response
B. Immune response
C. Adaptive response
D. Cellular response
A. Inflammation response
Which inflammatory mediators act as the 'first responders' in the inflammatory response?
A. Mast cells
B. Plasma cells
C. Endothelial cells
D. Monocytes
A. Mast cells
The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). What clinical manifestations would the nurse anticipate in the care of this client ? Select all that apply
A. Fever
B. Malaise
C. Muscle tenderness
D. Purulent cervical discharge
E. Upper right quadrant abdominal pain
A. Fever
B. Malaise
D. Purulent cervical discharge
What is a non-modifiable risk factor for a client with a possible diagnosis of ovarian cancer?
A. Obesity
B. Sister with ovarian cancer
C. Infertility
D. Negative for the +BRCA gene
B. Sister with ovarian cancer
Which of the following best describes one of the primary functions of testosterone?
A) Stimulates the production of progesterone from the anterior pituitary
B) Promotes the development of male secondary sex characteristics and spermatogenesis
C) Causes degeneration of the seminiferous tubules after puberty
D) Maintenance of libido and influence on muscle mass
B) Promotes the development of male secondary sex characteristics and spermatogenesis
What blood work would a nurse anticipate in the care of a client with dehydration?
A) CBC and BMP
B) ESR and CRP
C) Amylase and Lipase
D) Albumin level
A) CBC and BMP
What does an increased anion gap in blood typically indicate?
A) Dehydration
B) Respiratory alkalosis
C) Metabolic acidosis
D) Hypernatremia
C) Metabolic acidosis
Which statement correctly describes the pathophysiology of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
A) Chronic inflammation due to hypersensitivity
B) Hormonal disorder that results in the formation of ovarian cysts
C) Ascending bacterial infection in the lower reproductive tract
D) Immune response due to the overproduction of estrogen
C) Ascending bacterial infection in the lower reproductive tract
What would be an initial diagnosis tool in the care of a couple experiencing infertility?
A) Genetic testing
B) Blood work
C) Endoscopy
D) Surgical consult
B) Blood work
What would be included in the plan of care for a client with polycystic ovary disease (PCOS)?
A) Blood glucose checks every 6 hours
B) Administration of testosterone
C) Low fiber and high protein diet
D) Surgical consult
A) Blood glucose checks every 6 hours
What part of the client's past medical history may contribute to infertility?
A) History of brain cancer
B) History of bladder cancer
C) History of skin cancer
D) History of cervical cancer
B) History of bladder cancer
Which form of fluid transport uses plasma proteins to pull fluid from the interstitial space back into the capillaries?
A) Active transport
B) Diffusion
C) Filtration
D) Colloid osmotic pressure
D) Colloid osmotic pressure
Which client would be considered a risk factor for a traumatic brain injury (TBI)?
A) 45 year old female who is an alcoholic
B) 21 year old male with a history of binge drinking
C) 55 year old with a history of hypertension and smoking
D) 18 year old female with a history of drug use
B) 21 year old male with a history of binge drinking
What initial diagnosis tool would be utilized in the care of a client with a one month history of weakness, blurred vision, and frequent falls?
A) MRI
B) Lumbar puncture (LP)
C) CT scan
D) Ventriculostomy
C) CT scan
Which statement best describes the effects of a spinal cord injury?
A) Damage to the spinal cord affects only the area directly at the injury site
B) Severity of the injury depends on the location and extent of spinal cord damage
C) Spinal cord injuries affect movement, leaving sensory function intact
D) Spinal cord injuries can be completely reversed with early trauma intervention
B) Severity of the injury depends on the location and extent of spinal cord damage
What are the clinical manifestations of cerebral palsy (CP)? Select all that apply.
A) Limited fine motor
B) Delay in milestones
C) Lack of coordination and balance
D) Flat affect
E) Bradykinesia
A) Limited fine motor
B) Delay in milestones
C) Lack of coordination and balance
What type of pain is a small laceration to the left knee considered?
A) Visceral
B) Somatic
C) Referred
D) Cutaneous
D) Cutaneous
What contributing factor is associated with chronic pain?
A) Behavioral changes
B) Emotional stability
C) Financial independence
D) Cognitive impairment
A) Behavioral changes
Which statement by a student would indicate a need for further education regarding pain?
A) 'Pain cannot be measured or defined by the observer' B) 'Pain includes psychological and social factors'
C) 'Vital signs will help you to determine a client's pain level'
D) 'Many clients learn the concept of pain through life experiences'
C) 'Vital signs will help you to determine a client's pain level'
Which type of carcinogenesis occurs after conception and is influenced by environmental exposures?
A) Acquired gene mutation
B) Inherited gene mutation
C) BRCA gene mutation
D) T cell suppressor gene
A) Acquired gene mutation
Which mechanism is primarily responsible for the spread of cancer?
A) Direct extension
B) Hormonal involvement
C) Impaired neural transmission
D) T-cell impairment
A) Direct extension
What is a characteristic of a cancer cell?
A) Inhibits apoptosis
B) Initiates apoptosis
C) Inhibits phagocytosis
D) Initiates pinocytosis
A) Inhibits apoptosis
Which statement best describes the process by which a normal cell transforms into a cancer cell?
A) Atrophy of cells
B) Altered DNA of cells
C) Spontaneous mutation of cells
D) Immature death of cell
B) Altered DNA of cells
Which phase of acute infection does a one day history of fever and body aches represent?
A) Exposure
B) Incubation
C) Prodrome
D) Clinical Illness
B) Incubation
How do antibiotics inhibit bacteria?
A) Breakdown of the human cell wall to eliminate bacteria
B) Interfere with the function of the bacteria cell wall
C) Promotion of bacteria cell wall to evade the immune response
D) Production of enzymes to inhibit human cell wall
B) Interfere with the function of the bacteria cell wall
What is the clinical pathophysiology of influenza?
A) Disrupts the production of white blood cells (WBC)
B) Binds to respiratory epithelial cells and replicates
C) Binds to red blood cells and replicates
D) Promotes apoptosis of epithelial cells
B) Binds to respiratory epithelial cells and replicates
Which information from a 70 year old client indicates they should be screened for viral hepatitis? Select all that apply.
A) Frequently travels to countries with poor sanitation
B) 70 year old healthcare worker
C) History of IV drug use 20 years ago
D) Had unprotected sex with multiple partners
E) Volunteers with the unhoused youth
A) Frequently travels to countries with poor sanitation
B) 70 year old healthcare worker
C) History of IV drug use 20 years ago
D) Had unprotected sex with multiple partners