Surg Tech theory FINAL

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Last updated 4:06 AM on 4/20/26
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88 Terms

1
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what’s the role of the surgical tech technologies/ STSR?

A member of the sterile team, scrubbed gowned, and gloved participant in surgery and delivers direct surgical care.

2
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what is the role of a second assist?

A person who is sterile and retracting, suctioning, hemostasis, or can assemble in place wound suction device at close and applies wound dressings

3
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Sentinel event (also called adverse event) is?

defined by joint commission as a patient safety event resulting in death, permanent harm, severe temporary harm, and intervention required to sustain life

4
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what four things must be included for an incident/Sentinel event report?

Who: individuals involved

Where: place of the incident

When: time of the incident

How: manner of the incident

5
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Standard precautions, and proper OR attire are crucial because they help prevent what?

infections

6
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sterile attire, gloves, and double gloving are essential in maintaining what?

Asepsis

7
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Air exchange should be?

A minimum of 15 and a maximum of 20 per hour

8
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Air exchange should be between how many exchanges per hour?

20 - 25

9
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what should the operating room temperature range be between?

68-76

10
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What is the normal OR humidity range?

30%-60%

11
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What type of pressure should the OR have?

Positive pressure (air flows OUT of the room)

12
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blended current can be used to?

Provide Hemostasis and cut tissue

13
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What is the association of surgical technology (AST )

Professional organization for surgical technologists that provides standards, education, and code of ethics

14
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What is NBSTSA (National Board of Surgical Technology and Surgical Assisting)

Organization that administers the CST certification exam

15
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NCCT (National Center for Competency Testing)

Organization that provides an alternative certification for surgical technologists

16
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What is ARC/STSA

Recommends accreditation of surgical technology programs

17
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What is CAAHEP?

Accredits surgical technology educational programs

18
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What patient information is protected under HIPAA?

Name, DOB, SSN, medical record number, photos, email, etc.

19
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padding what areas of the body helps prevent pressure injury

Occiput(head), calcaneus (heels), genu(knees),sacrum (bottom), and talocrual (ankles)

20
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What risk may occur in supine/ dorsal Recumbent position?

Consider the respiratory system, avoid hypertension, and care for the pressure points.

21
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What are common risk for reverse Trendelenburg position?

Circulatory stasis, neuro and musculoskeletal damage to the lower extremities. so the ankles, and plantar neuropathies.

22
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What are the common risks with lithotomy position?

Neuromuscular damage to hips, girdles, and lower extremities, circulatory stasis, and an increase in intra abdominal pressure

23
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what are common risk for the Fowler position?

Circulatory stasis, lumbar and sacral vertebral stress

24
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What are common risk for prone and jackknife position?

Shoulder girdle neuromuscular damage, and trouble with intubation

25
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What are common risk for lateral position?

Risk related to the dependent shoulder and hip girls, and respiratory compromise

26
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What is the purpose of surgical skin preparation?

It prevents surgical site infections, and is the primary defense against infection

27
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What are four patient safety considerations to do before skin prep

Verify the patient’s allergies, ensure solution does not pull under the patient, causing chemical burn, make sure prep solution is dry, make sure iodine has not been heated up in a closed container because this can cause thermal burn

28
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What three surgical skin preps are approved?

Alcohol, iodophor, and chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG)

29
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What are the draping principles?

To Provide a wide sterile area

30
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What is an Aseptic technique?

A set of practices that are used to create and maintain a sterile field and prevent surgical site infections

31
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Pharmacokinetics

what your body does to the drug after you take it. Meaning absorption,distribution, metabolism, excretion (ADME)

32
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Pharmacodynamics

what the drug does to your body.Meaning drug effects, mechanism of action, receptor interaction.

33
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What is the drug classification and route for meperidine (trade name Demerol)

Drug classification: opioid analgesic

Drug route: IV, IM, PO

34
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What is the drug classification and route for Ketorolac tromethamine (trade name Toradol)

Drug classification: NSAID

Drug Route:IV, IM, PO

35
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What is the drug classification in route for Midazolam (trade name Versed)

Drug classification: benzodiazepine (sedative)

Drug Route: IV, IM, PO

36
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What is the drug classification and route for cefazolin sodium (trade name Ancef)

Drug classification: antibiotic(first GEN cephalosporin)

Drug Route: IV, IM

37
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What is the drug classification and route for Bacitracin (trade name bacitracin)

Drug classification: antibiotic

Drug Route: topical

38
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What is the drug classification and route for neomycin (trade name Neosporin)

Drug classification: antibiotic (aminoglycoside)

Drug Route: topical

39
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What is the drug classification and route for vancomycin HCL (trade name vancocin)

Drug classification:antibiotic

Drug Route: IV

40
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What is the drug classification in route for heparin sodium (trade name heparin)

Drug classification: anticoagulant

Drug Route: IV, SubQ,

41
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What is the drug classification in route for protamine sulfate (tree name protamine sulfate)

Drug classification: Anticoagulant reversal agent

Drug Route: IV

42
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What is the drug classification in route for ioversol (trade name isovue)

Drug classification: radiographic contrast

Drug Route: IV

43
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What is the drug classification in route for methylene blue

Drug classification: diagnostic dye

Drug Route: IV, Topical

44
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What is the drug classification and route for isosulfan blue (trade name lymphazurin)

Drug classification: diagnostic

Drug Route:SubQ

45
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What is the drug classification and route for absorbable gelatin (trade name gelfoam, surgifoam)

Drug classification: hemostatic agent

Drug Route: topical

46
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What is the drug classification and route for oxidize cellulose (trade name surgicel)

Drug classification:hemostatic agent

Drug Route: topical

47
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What is the drug classification and route for Thrombin (trade name Thrombinar)

Drug classification: hemostatic/coagulant

Drug Route: topical

48
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What is the drug classification and route for gelatin matrix with thrombin (trade name Floseal, Surgiflo)

Drug classification: hemostatic agent

Drug Route: topical

49
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What is the drug classification in route for dantrolene sodium ( trade name Dantrium)

Drug classification: skeletal muscle relax

Drug Route: IV

50
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What is the drug classification and route for lidocaine (trade name Xylocaine)

Drug classification: local anesthetic

Drug Route: IV, topical, local infiltration

51
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What is the classification and route for Bupivacaine (trade name Marcaine, Sensorcaine)

Drug classification: local anesthetic

Drug Route: injection (local, epidural, nerve block)

52
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What is the drug classification and route for epinephrine

Drug classification:vasopressor/adrenergic agonist

Drug Route: IV, IM, SubQ

53
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What is the drug classification and route for nitro oxide

Drug classification:inhalation anesthetic

Drug Route: inhalation

54
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What is the drug classification and route for Sevoflurane (Trade name ultane)

Drug classification: inhalation anesthetic

Drug Route: inhalation

55
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What is a drug classification and route for Desflurane (trade name Suprane)

Drug classification: inhalation anesthetic

Drug Route: inhalation

56
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What is the drug classification and route for Isoflurane (trade name Forane)

Drug classification: inhalation aesthetic

Drug Route: inhalation

57
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What is the drug classification and route for propofol (trade name Diprivan)

Drug classification: IV anesthetic

Drug Route: IV

58
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What is the drug classification and route for Succinylcholine (trade name Anectine)

Drug classification: Paralytic (depolarizing NMB)

Drug Route: IV

59
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What is a drug classification and route for bone wax

Drug classification: hemostatic agent

Drug Route: topical

60
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What is the maintenance phase of anesthesia?

this begins as the patient’s airway is established and secured with ET tube placed. This phase continues until surgical procedure has been completed. additional anesthetic agents are administered during this phase to keep pt asleep

61
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What is the emergence phase of anesthesia?

this is a phases were anesthetic agents are discontinued and allowed to wear off. Sometimes reversal agents are administered to permit the patient to gradually wake up. This phase ends when pt is transported to PACU

62
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What is the recovery phase of anesthesia?

A phase when a pt is awakened and becomes able to maintain their own airway, While Vital signs are closely monitored.

63
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General anesthesia

Patient is completely unconscious from IV drug (propofol) and inhalation gas (sevoflurane) with airway supported by ET tube/ LMA

64
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Regional anesthesia

Patient is awake or lightly sedated and given spinal, epidural, or nerve block depending on the surgery

65
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Local anesthesia

Patient is fully awake. Usually for patients undergoing brief, uncomplicated surgical procedures.(small procedure)

66
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MAC (Monitored Anesthesia Care)

Patient is sleepy, but not unconscious and can breath on their own

67
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What are the four phases of general anesthesia?

PreInduction, induction and rapid sequence, induction (for non NPO pt), maintenance, and emergence.

68
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What drug is used for rapid sequence induction?

Succinycholine (trade name Anectine)

69
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What are three components of a surgical fire triangle?

Ignition source , fuel, oxidizer

70
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What are the four phases of the disaster cycle?

Mitigation, Preparedness, Response, Recovery

71
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What does green tag mean?

Minor, able to walk

72
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What does yellow tag mean?

Delayed (stable, can wait)

73
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What does red tag mean?

Immediate (needs treatment ASAP)

74
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What does black tag mean?

Disease or not expected to survive

75
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What does golden hour in trama mean

First hour after traumatic injury when treatment is critical

76
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Handle sizes 3, 3L, 7, and 9 fit what size blades

10, 11, 12, 15

77
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Handle sizes 4, 4L fit what size blades

20 through 28

78
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What blades fit a #7 knife handle

10,11,12,15

79
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What instruments are used for cutting/dissecting?

Scalpels and scissors (Mayo = thick tissue, Metzenbaum = delicate tissue).

80
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What instruments are used for clamping/occluding?

Pean, Hemostats

Mosquito = small vessels

Crile = medium

Kelly = larger vessels

81
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What instruments are used for grasping/holding?

allis, kocher,

Adson with teeth = grab skin

Babcock and DeBakey = vessels/atraumatic.

82
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What instruments are used for retracting/exposing?

Hasson , Murphy

Army-Navy = shallow,

Richardson = deep

Gelpi = self-retaining

83
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What instrument is used for suturing?

Needle holder (Mayo-Hegar).

84
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Which instrument is used to cut delicate tissue?

Metzenbaum scissors

85
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Which instrument is used to clamp a small vessel?

Mosquito hemostat.

86
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Which forceps are used for atraumatic handling of vessels?

DeBakey forceps.

87
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Which retractor is self-retaining?

Gelpi retractor

88
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Which instrument is used to hold skin?

Adson forceps with teeth.