Comprehensive Guide to Barbiturates, Benzodiazepines, and CNS Depressants in Pharmacology

0.0(0)
Studied by 0 people
call kaiCall Kai
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
GameKnowt Play
Card Sorting

1/109

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no tags are added yet.

Last updated 3:41 PM on 5/6/26
Name
Mastery
Learn
Test
Matching
Spaced
Call with Kai

No analytics yet

Send a link to your students to track their progress

110 Terms

1
New cards

What are barbiturates?

Depressant drugs that induce sedation and sleep.

2
New cards

Who discovered barbiturates?

Adolf von Baeyer.

3
New cards

What is the mechanism of action of barbiturates?

They slow down neural activity in the central nervous system and disinhibit the cerebral cortex

4
New cards

What are some characteristics of barbiturates?

Relatively tasteless and ordorless, reliably induces sleep

5
New cards

What are barbiutrates prescribed for?

Historically for insomnia, but now epilepsy and surgical anesthesia

6
New cards

What is the elimination half-life of barbiturates?

10-40 hours up to 50-120 hours

7
New cards

What are the acute effects of barbiturates at low doses?

Relaxation and a sense of euphoria.

8
New cards

What are the therapeutic doses of barbiturates used for?

Sedation and drowsiness.

9
New cards

What are the effects of barbituates at high doses?

Hypnotic (sleep-inducing)

10
New cards

What is the overdose potential of barbiturates?

The most serious risk, either from taking too high a dose or taking it in combination with alcohol

11
New cards

What is is the biggest risk of barbiturates?

Excessive dose produces an inhibition of the respiratory control centers in the brain

12
New cards

What are the effects if you combine barbiturates with acohol?

Synergistic effect (combined result is greater than the sum of the effects of each drug alone)

13
New cards

What are common withdrawal symptoms from barbiturates?

Tremors, nausea, vomiting, confusion, convulsions, hallucinations; most dangerous and distressing type of drug withdrawal; closely resemples withdrawal after chronic alcohol abuse

14
New cards

What is the effect of benzodiazepines?

They have a selective effect on anxiety without general sedation; also slow onset, no "rush; tranquilizing rather than sedative effects

15
New cards

What is a major adverse effect of benzodiazepines?

They can produce drug-induced dementia in elederly patients

16
New cards

What is tolerance to benzodiazepines like?

Little problem with tolerance when taken to reduce anxiety, but there is distinct tolerance

17
New cards

What neurotransmitter do benzodiazepines primarily affect?

GABA (heightens its inhibitory effect on CNS)

18
New cards

What is a key characteristic of benzodiazepines?

They are absorbed slowly into the bloodstream from small intestine and don't affect the respiratory centers in the brain

19
New cards

What are common withdrawal symptoms from benzodiazepines?

Increased anxiety, insomnia, restlessness, agitation (gone in 1-4 weeks).

20
New cards

What is the overdose potential of benzodiazepines?

Almost impossible due to lack of impact on respiratory system.

21
New cards

What are inhalants?

Substances that inhibit CNS and produce intoxication effects (also slow down brain waves)

22
New cards

What are common effects of inhalants?

Euphoria, dizziness, slurred speech, hallucinations, giddiness, recklessness/omnipotence; hits fast, toxic effect on organs

23
New cards

What is the toxicity concern with inhalants?

Concentration of exposure can be 50 to 100 times greater than safe levels/allowable in industry exposure; 13 times greater risk of birth defects for pregnant women

24
New cards

What are the withdrawal symptoms of inhalants?

Rstlessness, irritability, anxiety

25
New cards

What are beta blockers used for?

Control of high blood pressure and anxiety-producing events.

26
New cards

What is the effect of beta blockers on the heart?

They slow heart rate, relax pressure on blood vessel walls, and decrease force of heart contraction.

27
New cards

What are some common drugs related to benzodiazepines?

Diazepam, Xanax, Rohypnol, Valium

28
New cards

What is the mechanism of action of beta blockers?

They block beta-adrenergic receptors.

29
New cards

What is a characteristic of barbiturates regarding sleep?

They suppress REM sleep.

30
New cards

What is the mechanism of action of zolpidem (Ambien)?

It's a sedative-hypnotic that binds to a subtype of GABA receptor (but isn't a benzodiazepine)

31
New cards

What are the effects of zolpidem?

Strong but transient sedative effects with little to no muscle relaxation; used for treatment of insomnia

32
New cards

What is GHB?

Gamma-hydroxybutyrate, a colorless, odorless, virtually tasteless substance that produces an "out-of-body" high

33
New cards

What is the primary use of buspirone?

It relieves anxiety (anxiolytic) by acting on a subclass of serotonin receptors

34
New cards

What are the pros of buspirone?

There are no cross-tolerance effects with alcohol, no withdrawal, no impairment in motor skills

35
New cards

What is nitrous oxide commonly known as?

Laughing gas (used by dentists as anesthetic)

36
New cards

What are the risks associated with nitrous oxide?

It can lead to hypoxia.

37
New cards

What is methaqualone classified as?

A nonbarbiturate depressant/sedative-hypnotic drug; used to be a sleeping pill, now a Schedule I Controlled Substance and "date-rape" drug

38
New cards

What is meprobamate known for?

It was the first anxiolytic drug developed and it genuinely worked

39
New cards

Cons of meprobomate

Diminished motor reflexes and made people drowsy; produced depedence at more than twice the normal recommended daily dose; Classified as schedule IV controlled substance

40
New cards

What is diazepam commonly known as?

Valium (for the treatment of anxiety)

41
New cards

What is the effect of toluene inhalation?

It can cause reduction in short-term memory, anemia, and hearing loss.

42
New cards

What is the primary use of amobarbital?

It is a sedative-hypnotic drug.

43
New cards

What is the brand name of alprazolam?

Xanax (shorter acting oral benzodiazepine for sleeping problems)

44
New cards

What is the effect of hexane inhalation?

It is associated with peripheral nerve damage, leading to muscular weakness and atrophy

45
New cards

What is ether used for?

It was used as an anodyne for intestinal cramps and toothaches and resembled intoxication

46
New cards

What is Rohypnol?

Long-acting benzodiazepine that is highly synergistic with alcohol and implicated in DFSA cases

47
New cards

What is the strength comparison of Rohypnol to Valium?

Rohypnol is ten times stronger than Valium

48
New cards

What are the active ingredients in OTC sleep aids like diphenhydramine hydrochloride, doxylamine succinate, and diphenhydramine citrate?

CNS depressants.

49
New cards

What neurotransmitters should be known in pharmacology?

GABA, serotonin, dopamine.

50
New cards

What is hypoxia?

A deficiency in oxygen intake.

51
New cards

What age group tends to use inhalants?

Young children, typically ages 11-13.

52
New cards

What was the purpose of the Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906?

To ensure food and drugs in the U.S. were inspected for purity and consistency; all active ingredients need to be clearly, accurately identified on label

53
New cards

What are the phases of the FDA drug approval process?

Phase 1: 10-100 healthy volunteers; Phase 2: 100-500 patients with condition; Phase 3: 1,000-3,000 patients monitored, New Drug Application submitted to FDA after 3+ years; Phase 4: post-marketing monitoring.

54
New cards

What was the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 intended to do?

Basic food and drug regulatory law that required companies to demonstrate drug safety before marketing commercially and required that all ingredients be accurately identified

55
New cards

How long do drug patents last?

They last for a fixed duration of 20 years.

56
New cards

What is bioequivalence?

It refers to two drugs having the same pharmacological and physiological effects.

57
New cards

What is a brand name?

The registered name used by the original company under the patent; they tend to continue marketing the drug under its brand name even when the patent expires

58
New cards

What are generic drugs?

Forms of a drug that are manufactured and sold to the public after the 20 year patent is up; tend to be much less expensive; bioequivalent, but different bioavailability

59
New cards

What is aspirin used for?

It is used for mild to moderate pain, anti-inflammatory, antipyretic, and has anticlotting effects.

60
New cards

What is acetaminophen commonly known as?

Tylenol; only pain relieving; equivalent effect on pain as aspirin, bit without the side effects

61
New cards

What is the primary use of ibuprofen?

It reduces pain, inflammation, and elevated temperature (Advil, Motrin, Buprin)

62
New cards

What is naproxen known for?

It is an anti-inflammatory and antipyretic with a longer duration of action than other OTC analgesics (8-12 hours)(Aleve)

63
New cards

What population should avoid pseudoephedrine?

Young children under age 4.

64
New cards

How are dietary supplements treated differently from drugs?

They don't need to be tested for safety or effectiveness but must be free of contaminants and labels must accurately reflect the contents (aren't classified as drugs)

65
New cards

What was the Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962 intended to do?

It required drug companies to prove new drugs were effective as well as safe to ensure that all drugs (both prescription and nonprescription) sold in the U.S. were bpoth safe and effective; GRAHL, GRAS, GRAE

66
New cards

What is an IND?

An Investigational New Drug application submitted to the FDA; sent to FDA after preliminary studies and drug has been determined to be safe with animals

67
New cards

What types of diseases have expedited drug treatments?

AIDS, infections associated with kidney transplants, Alzheimer's disease, Parkinson's disease, and some advanced cancers.

68
New cards

What are NSAIDs and what do they treat?

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs that reduce pain and swelling caused by injury or disease.

69
New cards

What are prostaglandins?

A group of hormone-like chemicals produced by body cells when injured, encourage inflammation and fever; blocked by many OTC analgesics

70
New cards

How much of the FDA approval process is designated for drug regulation?

1/3 of the entire FDA budget.

71
New cards

How many prescription errors occur annually for the elderly population?

500,000.

72
New cards

What class of drugs contains opioid dextromethorphan?

Cough-and-cold remedies.

73
New cards

What is robo-tripping?

Getting high off of/abusing dextromethorphan (cough-and-cold rememdy).

74
New cards

What is Medicare Part D?

Federal legislation regarding prescription drug reimbursement for Medicare beneficiaries; optional, private insurance that covers prescription drugs for Medicare beneficiaries

75
New cards

What does GRAHL stand for?

Generally regarded as honestly labeled.

76
New cards

What does GRAS stand for?

Generally regarded as safe.

77
New cards

What does GRAE stand for?

Generally regarded as effective.

78
New cards

What is OTC?

Over-the-counter drugs available without a prescription.

79
New cards

What is an antipyretic?

A medication used to reduce, prevent, or relieve fever.

80
New cards

What is an antitussive?

A medication that suppresses or relieves coughing.

81
New cards

What is an analgesic?

A medication used to manage and relieve pain.

82
New cards

What is an antihistamine?

A medication used to treat allergy symptoms.

83
New cards

Who can take aspirin safely?

People age 20 and older.

84
New cards

What is Reyes Syndrome?

A rare but dangerous childhood disorder associated with ASA-type analgesic drugs (Aspririn); marked by lethargy, nausea, sever vomiting, disorientation, and coma

85
New cards

What label must dietary supplements have?

Must accurately reflect contents and state that claims have not been evaluated by the FDA.

86
New cards

What is the concordance rate for schizophrenia in monozygotic twins?

48%.

87
New cards

What is the biomedical model of mental illness?

The position that mental disorders are caused by abnormal biochemical processes in the brain.

88
New cards

What is the diathesis-stress model?

Mental disorders develop from a combination of pre-existing vulnerability and environmental stress.

89
New cards

What were the treatment options for schizophrenia prior to the 1950s?

Heavy administration of barbiturates and neurosurgical interventions.

90
New cards

What is Tardive dyskinesia?

A serious side effect affecting schizophrenia patients treated with first-generation antipsychotic drugs; characterized by jerky movements of face and lips, unsteadienss in walking, and rocking when seated

91
New cards

What are the three types of symptoms that characterize schizophrenia?

Positive symptoms, negative symptoms, and cognitive symptoms.

92
New cards

What are positive symptoms of schizophrenia?

Addition to a person's experience (distortion of reality); psychotic behaviors not typically seen in healthy people

93
New cards

What are negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

Withdrawal or reduction in normal functioning; disruptions to normal emotions and behaviors

94
New cards

What are cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia?

Decline in mental processing, making it hard to lead a normal life; disordered thinking and memory issues

95
New cards

What is aripiprazole?

Brand name Abilify, a third-generation antipsychotic effective for schizophrenia and BPD without risk of Parkinson's side effects, tardive dyskinesia, agranulocytosis, weight gain, or diabetes; increases functioning of D2 receptors

96
New cards

What is meant by the term psychotrophic?

Another word for psychiatric drugs; moving the patient closer to a normal state of mind

97
New cards

What is Valproate?

A drug used for patients suffering from mania or bipolar disorder.

98
New cards

What is Clozaril?

A second-generation antipsychotic effective for many schizophrenia patients.

99
New cards

What is Risperdal?

A second-generation antipsychotic that can cause significant weight gain; not for elderly people; can also be used for BPD

100
New cards

What is meant by the term off-label?

Prescribing a medication for a purpose not FDA-approved.