Mod 4 - Vascular Interventional (IR)

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A set of practice flashcards covering diagnostic and therapeutic vascular interventional radiology procedures, including equipment, techniques, and nursing considerations.

Last updated 4:02 AM on 6/19/26
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89 Terms

1
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What are the two major categories of vascular IR procedures?

Diagnostic angiography and therapeutic vascular interventions.

2
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What is the MRT primarily responsible for when an angiography nurse is present?

Imaging-related duties such as image acquisition, injector setup, contrast preparation, and post-processing.

3
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What additional responsibilities may the MRT assume if no angiography nurse is present?

Patient monitoring, positioning, dressing changes, and patient education.

4
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What are the three most common MRT duties during angiography?

C-arm operation, image acquisition, and post-processing.

5
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Before an angiographic procedure, what must the MRT verify regarding blood work?

Clotting studies and renal function tests.

6
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What does DSA stand for?

Digital Subtraction Angiography.

7
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What is the purpose of DSA?

To remove superimposed anatomy and improve visualization of contrast-filled vessels.

8
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What is the first image obtained during DSA called?

Mask image.

9
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What does the mask image contain?

Normal anatomy without contrast.

10
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What is the final image produced by DSA called?

Subtracted image.

11
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What anatomy is removed during the subtraction process?

Duplicate bone and soft tissue anatomy.

12
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What remains visible after subtraction?

Contrast-enhanced vasculature.

13
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What is DSA stepping also called?

Bolus Chase.

14
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What body region commonly uses DSA stepping?

Lower extremities.

15
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What is one major advantage of DSA?

Improved contrast resolution.

16
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What is another major advantage of DSA?

Reduced contrast media requirements.

17
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What is one major disadvantage of DSA?

Reduced spatial resolution.

18
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Why can DSA increase patient dose?

Multiple exposures are required.

19
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What is misregistration?

Misalignment between the mask image and subsequent contrast images.

20
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What is the most common cause of misregistration?

Patient movement.

21
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Name one involuntary cause of misregistration.

Peristalsis.

22
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How can MRTs help reduce misregistration?

Proper positioning, immobilization, and breath-hold instructions.

23
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What is the most common indication for angiography?

Evaluation of vascular disease such as stenosis or aneurysm.

24
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What vascular abnormality involves dilation of a vessel wall?

Aneurysm.

25
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Name one trauma-related indication for angiography.

Identification of arterial injury.

26
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What major contrast-related contraindication exists for angiography?

Severe contrast allergy.

27
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Why is renal failure a contraindication for angiography?

Risk of contrast-induced nephrotoxicity.

28
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Why is coagulopathy a contraindication for angiography?

Increased bleeding risk.

29
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Which clotting studies are commonly reviewed before angiography?

Platelets, INR, and PTT.

30
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Which renal function tests are commonly reviewed before angiography?

Creatinine and eGFR.

31
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What two medications are commonly used for conscious sedation in IR?

Fentanyl and Midazolam (Versed).

32
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What three vital signs are continuously monitored during angiography?

Oxygen saturation, ECG, and blood pressure.

33
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Which arterial access site is becoming increasingly popular?

Radial artery.

34
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Why is radial access becoming more popular?

Easier recovery and fewer complications.

35
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What is the most common vascular access technique in IR?

Seldinger technique.

36
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What is the correct sequence of the Seldinger technique?

Needle → Guidewire → Catheter → Sheath.

37
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What access technique is commonly used for vertebroplasty?

Trocar technique.

38
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Following femoral artery access, how long must the patient generally remain supine?

Approximately 4hours4\,\text{hours}.

39
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What is the purpose of applying compression after catheter removal?

Achieve hemostasis.

40
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What complication should be monitored for at the puncture site after angiography?

Hematoma.

41
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What does PTA stand for?

Percutaneous Transluminal Angioplasty.

42
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What is the purpose of PTA?

To dilate a stenotic vessel.

43
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What device is used to dilate the stenosis during PTA?

Balloon catheter.

44
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What does PTCA stand for?

Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty.

45
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What is a major complication of PTA?

Vessel rupture.

46
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What is the purpose of a vascular stent?

To keep a vessel open and maintain patency.

47
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What metal is most commonly used in self-expanding stents?

Nitinol.

48
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What material covers covered stents?

PTFE (Polytetrafluoroethylene)\text{PTFE (Polytetrafluoroethylene)}

49
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What does EVAR stand for?

Endovascular Aneurysm Repair.

50
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What condition is EVAR commonly used to treat?

Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA).

51
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A DSA image demonstrates vessel outlines but residual bony anatomy remains visible. What likely occurred?

Misregistration.

52
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A patient moves between the mask image and contrast image. What artifact occurs?

Misregistration.

53
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During lower limb angiography, the table automatically follows contrast through the leg. What technique is being used?

DSA stepping (Bolus Chase).

54
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Why can DSA use lower volumes of contrast than standard angiography?

Background anatomy is removed, improving vessel conspicuity.

55
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Which access site generally allows faster discharge: radial or femoral?

Radial.

56
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A patient is taking anticoagulants. What major angiography complication risk increases?

Bleeding.

57
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Which vessel is traditionally used for aortic arch angiography access?

Femoral artery.

58
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Why is heparin used to flush angiography catheters?

To reduce clot formation.

59
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A balloon catheter is inflated across a vessel narrowing. What procedure is occurring?

PTA.

60
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What pressure-related complication can occur if a PTA balloon is overinflated?

Vessel rupture.

61
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What is the major difference between PTA and stent placement?

PTA dilates the vessel; a stent provides ongoing structural support.

62
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Which stent type expands when an outer sheath is withdrawn?

Self-expanding stent.

63
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What property makes nitinol useful for self-expanding stents?

Shape memory.

64
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What therapeutic procedure uses tPA?

Thrombolysis.

65
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What is the primary complication of thrombolysis?

Bleeding.

66
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What procedure physically removes a clot rather than dissolving it?

Mechanical thrombectomy.

67
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What is the most common use of mechanical thrombectomy?

Large-vessel ischemic stroke.

68
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What is the primary purpose of an IVC filter?

Prevent pulmonary embolism.

69
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Does an IVC filter treat DVT?

No, it only prevents embolization to the lungs.

70
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Where should an IVC filter ideally be placed?

Below the lowest renal vein.

71
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What is the preferred access side for IVC filter placement?

Right side.

72
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What is the most common IVC filter shape?

Conical.

73
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What is the most common IVC filter material?

Nitinol.

74
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What condition constitutes an absolute contraindication for IVC filter placement?

Complete IVC thrombosis.

75
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What is the main indication for IVC filter placement?

DVT with contraindication to anticoagulation.

76
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What is another major indication for IVC filter placement?

Recurrent DVT/PE despite anticoagulation.

77
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What is a major complication associated with IVC filter migration?

Pulmonary embolism or cardiopulmonary symptoms.

78
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What happens if excessive clot accumulates around the IVC filter?

IVC thrombosis.

79
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What complication makes filter retrieval difficult over time?

Device adhesion to the vessel wall.

80
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What is a bioconvertible filter?

A filter that biodegrades and converts into an IVC stent.

81
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What is one example of an imaging-related duty the MRT performs regarding equipment?

Injector setup.

82
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What is one example of an additional duty the MRT performs that relates to skin care?

Dressing changes.

83
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In the Seldinger technique, what component is inserted immediately after the needle?

Guidewire.

84
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Which clotting study mentioned in the transcript begins with the letter 'I'?

INR.

85
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Which renal function test mentioned in the transcript is often abbreviated with a lowercase 'e'?

eGFR.

86
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What type of food must usually be avoided before a sedated procedure?

Solid Food

87
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What is the main purpose of fasting before sedation?

To reduce the risk of aspiration.

88
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What is aspiration?

When stomach contents or vomit enter the lungs.

89
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What may happen if a patient does not follow fasting instructions?

The procedure may be postponed or delayed.