Immunodiagnostic Exam 1 CORRECT ANSWERS

Which of the following are components of both innate and adaptive immune responses?

Macrophages

The process by which leukocytes are attracted to a specific area by chemical messengers is called:

Chemotaxis

The most effective phagocytic and antigen-presenting cell is the:

Dendritic Cell

Which of the following is characteristic of natural immunity?

Mechanisms are always present and fully functional

Where does the specific immune response to a foreign antigen mainly occur?

Lymph Nodes

Which white cell in the peripheral blood migrates into the tissue to become a macrophage?

Monocyte

Which of the following is characteristic of mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue?

It includes the tonssils and the appendix

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a lymph node?

Considered a primary or central lymphoid organ

Macrophages that migrate to the liver are called:

Kupffer cells

T cells are mainly concentrated in which region of the lymph nodes?

paracortex

A primary site of antigen trapping and presentation to immune cells is the:

spleen

Contact with antigen and activation of B cells normally occurs in the:

Lymph nodes

Which of the following is a characteristic of opsonins?

They are molecules that coat the bacteria, making them more susceptible to phagocytosis

The most primitive component of the immune response found even in some of the simplest

forms of life is the ability to

self from non self

A child has chicken pox and recovers. Later, she is exposed to chicken pox and does not get sick, but when she is exposed to influenza, she does get sick. This is an example of

adaptive immunity

A man opens up an old loaf of bread and inhales Penicillium spores from the organism growing inside. Inside the man's lungs, phagocytes engulf and digest the spores. The man never gets sick. This is an example of

Innate Immunity

In the recognition phase of the immune response, the body must determine that

The antigen encountered is "non-self"

The English physician who vaccinated a boy with cowpox to induce immunity to small pox was

Edward Jenner

Simian immunodeficiency virus (SIV) causes disease in monkeys similar to AIDS in humans

caused by human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). In theory, why would SIV be a candidate

organism to be used in a human AIDS vaccine?

SIV could stimulate an immune response against SIV that cross- react with HIV

The person who won the Nobel Prize in 1908 for his work in demonstrating phagocytosis by

white blood cells is

Elie Metchnikoff

The first true vaccine given to a human containing the specific pathogen to which immunity was desired was:

Rabies

Which of the cell types listed below needs to have antigen processed before it can be

recognized?

T lymphocytes

The ability of cowpox inoculation to lead to the protection from smallpox is an example of:

Cross-reaction

Inoculation of smallpox crusts through the skin or inhalation is known as:

Variolation

The primary lymphoid organs are the

Bone marrow and Spleen

An example of humoral immunity would include:

Humoral antibodies

Each positive acute phase reactant below is paired correctly with its function except

FFibrinogen/activation of fibroblast cells

Neutrophils have receptors for which portion of the antibody molecule?

Fc (constant region)

What is the exact structure to which an antibody or T cell receptor will bind?

Epitope

Which immunoglobulin subclass below resides exclusively on the surface of B cells and serves a regulatory function?

IgD

If a naive T cell does not encounter its corresponding antigen within a few days, what happens?

Undergoes apatosis

Which statement below is TRUE regarding B lymphocytes?

B memory cells can live for years and reactive quickly if they encounter the same antigen

Which molecules on the cell surfaces of transplanted tissue are most important to match to the recipient to immediately prevent the recipient's T cells from recognizing the transplanted tissue as foreign?

Major histocompatibility complex Class II

Which of the following is characteristic of the primary immune response (first encounter with an antigen) as compared with the secondary immune response (later encounter with the same antigen)?

More IgM antibodies are produced

What is the function of stromal cells in the bone marrow?

They produce IL-7

Toll-like receptors act in which way?

Enhance recognition of bacteria by phagocytic cells

How does the DNA in a pre-B cell differ from germline DNA?

The V, D, J genes have been successfully rearranged on the chromosome coding for the heavy immunoglobulin chain

What immunoglobulins are expressed on the surface of a mature, unstimulated B lymphocyte?

IgD and IgM

Each of the following statements regarding B lymphocytes is TRUE except

A B cell is considered to be fully matured when it is secreting antibody

When a B cell encounters its corresponding antigen, it expresses more __________ in order to be a more effective antigen-presenting cell.

MHC class II

The B cell receptor for antigen is:

Surface immunoglobulin

What kind of antigens can B lymphocytes react against independent of T helper cells?

Large molecules with repetitive structures

Which of the following is(are) characteristic(s) of a plasma cell?

It no longer expresses membrane IgD and only IgM

Which of the following is (are) characteristic of B memory cells?

expresses more complement receptors adhesion molecules than a mature cell

Which of the following would be the most effective immunogen?

One with multiple epitopes with many specificities

Which strategy for introducing immunogen to a host is most likely to stimulate the strongest

immune reaction?

Multiple medium doses

All of the following are TRUE regarding the anamnestic response except

Antibody titer is lower than in the primary response

A 50-kDa protein from a bacterial cell that has numerous different epitopes would be called:

An immunogen and an antigen

Which of the following molecules is the best immunogen?

Protein

Which of the following is a low-molecular-weight molecule that has one binding site for an

antibody?

Hapten

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic shared by class I and class II MHC molecules?

Expressed constitutively on all nucleated cells

Quantitatively, the most important defense against food-borne pathogens in the

gastrointestinal tract is

low pH and high enzymatic content of the stomach

A superantigen, such as toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1), bypasses the normal antigen processing stage by binding to and cross-linking:

A portion of a T- cell receptor and an MHC class 1- molecule

The fundamental difference between primary and secondary organs of the lymphatic system is:

Maturation of lymphocytes occura in primary organs, and activation occurs in secondary organs

Which of the following is LEAST immunogenic?

Self-proteins

Which of the following is (are) characteristic of B lymphocyte response against thymusdependent antigens?

All of the above

CD 40 on the B cell membrane must bind to CD 40L on the TH cell in order for ______to occur

Class-switching

One B-cell marker of early-stage B-sell development is _______, whereas ______ is a marker for later stages of B-cell development. (LOOK UP THE CD MARKERS)

CD10; CD20

A patient with a viral infection of the ABC virus is found to have a high antibody titer to the ABC virus's RNA or anti-ABCr. Which of the following is true?

MHC class I molecules presented antigen to CD8+ T cells

Class II molecules bind to what kind of peptides

Processed Exogenous

The purpose of the invariant chain is to block the peptide-binding site of:

Class II MHC molecules

. Antigens found in different species that trigger a similar antibody response are called:

Heterophile antigens

The term "human leukocyte antigen" is synonymous with:

Major histocompatibility complex

Aluminum salt in the hepatitis vaccine functions as:

An adjuvant

If a mother is MHC A3A14/B5B15/Cw3Cw4 and her child is A3A9/B5B27/Cw4Cw7, which of the following men is the most likely candidate for the father?

A5A9/B5B27/Cw3Cw7

Which of the following is an acute-phase protein?

Serum amyloid A

Acute-phase reactants are elevated in a patient's serum. What does this result, on its own,

indicate about the patient?

Inflammation of an unknown cause is present

Macrophages recognize target cells using which of the following?

Toll-like receptors

All of the following are characteristic of acute-phase reactants EXCEPT:

They are used to diagnose a specific disease

The defense mechanism carried out by natural killer cells involves:

Perforin- and granzyme-meditated killing

All of the following are part of the process of phagocytosis EXCEPT:

diapedesis

Granzymes activate which of the following in a target cell?

apoptosis

Toll-like receptors bind to:

Pathogen-associated molecular patterns

After a macrophage phagocytizes, kills, and digests a microbe:

Some microbial peptides are bound by MHC class II

Immunoglobulin gene rearrangements occur in which stage of B-cell development?

Pro-B cell

The purpose of negative selection of B cells is to:

Eliminate B cells that are specific for self-antigens

The difference in kinetics between a primary and secondary immune response is caused by the presence of:

Memory cells in the secondary response

How are cytotoxic T cells and natural killer cells similar?

Both induce apoptosis

Which T-cell surface protein is associated with the T-cell receptor and is involved in signal

transduction?

CD3

The cells that primarily function by secreting large amounts of cytokines are:

T helper cells

The purpose or end result of negative selection of the T cell is to ensure:

Self-tolerance

The T-cell receptor for antigen comprises which of the following molecules?

Alpha and beta chains

Which marker would be found on pre-B cells?

Mu heavy chains

A lymphocyte exhibits the following markers: CD19, IgM, IgD. What is its likely identity?

Mature B cell

Which type of helper T cell promotes cytotoxic activity?

Th-1

A critical receptor involved in the second signal for T-dependent B-cell activation is:

CD40

Mutations causing deficiencies in CD40L expression lead to an inability of helper T cells to:

Promote class-switching, resulting in high IgM and low IgA and IgG concentrations

Positive selection occurs when:

Cells become positive for either CD4 or CD8 by recognizing either the MHC class I or II molecule

Thymocytes start as:

Double negative, become double positive and then become either CD4 positive or CD8 positive

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