BIO-336 (Comprehensive)

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Last updated 6:09 AM on 4/24/26
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165 Terms

1
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Alpha-Beta T cells

Advanced; require MHC display; high diversity.

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Gamma-Delta T cells

Ancient/Archaic; no display platform needed (similar to BCR); limited randomization.

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T-Independent: speed and antibody class

Fast; always starts as IgM; no memory.

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T-Dependent: speed and antibody class

Slower; can class-switch (IgG, IgA, IgE); full memory.

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Where antigens from "inside the cell" (viral/cancer) are displayed

MHC I (activates CD8 CTLs).

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Where antigens from "outside the cell" (engulfed) are displayed

MHC II (activates CD4 helpers).

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Herd Immunity

When enough immune individuals exist in a population to protect those who are still vulnerable.

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Explain the mechanism of a conjugate vaccine.

The B cell binds the carbohydrate, internalizes the complex, and displays the protein peptides on MHC II, allowing CD4 T cell help for class switching to IgG.

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Give an example of a Herpes virus that hide in nerve cells and reactivates later.

VZV (Varicella-Zoster Virus); causes chickenpox initially and shingles later in life.

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How do allergy shots utilize the concept of tolerance?

They exploit peripheral tolerance to down-regulate immunity to specific foreign antigens over time.

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How does HIV cause AIDS if it doesn't directly damage all tissues?

HIV paralyzes CD4 T cells; without these "helpers," the person becomes vulnerable to opportunistic infections that are normally harmless.

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How does Interferon help CTL activation?

It upregulates MHC I expression, forcing more viral peptides to be displayed.

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How many proteins and peptides can a single virus produce?

A virus with ~12 proteins can be fragmented into dozens of peptides, providing an enormous range of targets.

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Name the Antigen-Presenting Cells (APCs) that have MHC II and interact with CD4 cells.

1. B lymphocytes.
2. Macrophages.
3. Dendritic cells.

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What does Type I (IFN-α, IFN-β) do?

Primary antiviral; shuts down protein synthesis.

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What does Type II (IFN-γ) do?

TH1 response; pro-inflammatory.

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What does Type III (IFN-) do?

Specific infections like influenza.

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Name "Immune Privileged Sites" where cell-mediated immunity is restricted.

1. Inside the eye.
2. Central Nervous System (CNS).

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Rank the Immunogenicity Hierarchy from most to least immunogenic.

Proteins → carbs → lipids → DNA/RNA

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Roughly how many different T cells and B lymphocytes does the body generate?

Roughly half a billion (5 × 10⁸) different T cells and half a billion different B lymphocytes.

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What "critical concept" describes the deletion of cells that accidentally recognize the body's own proteins?

Clonal deletion, which is the process of tolerance.

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What antibody and cell type are critical for antiparasitic (worm) responses?

IgE and Mast cells (which release toxic compounds via FC-IgE receptors).

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What are "Syncytia" and which cells are best at dealing with them?

Giant multinucleated cells formed by fused membranes (RSV); CTLs are specifically evolved to deal with them because antibodies cannot reach inside.

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What are Monoclonal antibodies?

Laboratory-made (hybridoma); one specific antibody specificity.

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What are Polyclonal antibodies?

Natural mixture in blood against every epitope exposed.

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NKT cells regarding TCR and Antigen display

Have a TCR (alpha-beta) and require antigen display via CD1.

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NK cells regarding TCR and Antigen display

Have no TCR and do not require antigen display.

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What are the four types of co-stimulation?

1. MHC/TCR signal (High specificity).
2. CD4/CD8 co-receptor (Interaction with MHC platform).
3. B7/CD28 interaction (APC to T cell).
4. Cytokine dialogue (Bidirectional conversation).

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What are the four types of hypersensitivity summary (by antibody/complement/cell)?

Type 1: IgE, Mast cells.
Type 2: IgG/IgM, Cell surfaces/Complement.
Type 3: IgG, Immune Complexes/Neutrophils.
Type 4: None (T-cell), Delayed days/weeks.

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What are the similarities between T cell receptors (TCRs) and B cell receptors (BCRs)?

1. Both are randomized in their receptor region.
2. Both require activation and clonal amplification before responding.

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What are the three display platforms on a dendritic cell and what do they display?

1. MHC I: Peptide only.
2. MHC II: Peptide only.
3. CD1: Glycolipid (not peptide).

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What are the three laboratory methods mentioned for determining MHC structure?

1. X-ray crystallography (Gold standard).
2. Cryo-EM.
3. NMR.

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What are the three sources of MHC diversity?

1. Polymorphism (many alleles in population).
2. Polygenic (multiple genes per person).
3. Codominance (maternal and paternal alleles expressed simultaneously).

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What are the two primary functions of CD8 T cells?

1. Cytotoxic T Lymphocyte (CTL): Targets virally infected or cancer cells.
2. T Suppressor: Suppresses inappropriate immune/inflammatory responses.

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What are the two roles of NK cells in the antiviral phase?

1. Kill cells with low MHC I expression.
2. ADCC (Antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity).

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What are the two steps of T cell selection in the thymus?

1. Positive Selection: Keep cells that interact "a little bit" with self-MHC.
2. Negative Selection: Delete cells that interact "too strongly" with self-peptide (prevents autoimmunity).

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What are the two theories for why MHC diversity is so high?

1. Heterozygous Advantage: Carrying different alleles allows for more diverse peptide display.
2. Population-level Diversity (Disassortative Mating): Ensures some individuals survive any pandemic.

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What are the two types of tolerance, and when/where do they occur?

1. Central tolerance: During gestational (fetal) life in primary lymphoid tissue.
2. Peripheral tolerance: Throughout the rest of life in secondary lymphoid tissue.

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What are the viral immune evasion strategies?

1. Cover with host-derived membrane.
2. Hide inside cells (syncytia).
3. Evolve molecular mechanisms to block immune functions.

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What cell marks the shift/bridge from innate to adaptive immunity?

Dendritic cell (the only cell that can initiate a response from a naive CD4+ T cell).

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What do CD8 CTLs use to kill targets after forming an immune synapse?

FAS ligand (and perforin/granzymes which cause "clean" death/apoptosis).

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What happens to an MHC molecule without a peptide in its binding pocket?

It falls apart.

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What is "Affinity Maturation"?

Hypermutation in B cell genes specifically encoding the antibody binding site, resulting in higher-affinity antibodies over time.

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What is "Alloreactivity," and what percentage of CTLs participate?

The interaction between a recipient's CTLs and a donor's cells; ~10% of CTLs can react with any given foreign MHC, causing rejection.

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What is "Antibody Enhancement" (Antibody-Dependent Enhancement)?

When non-neutralizing antibodies from a first infection increase the chance of the second infection getting inside cells (e.g., Dengue fever).

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What is "Cross-Presentation"?

An exception where a dendritic cell engulfs a dying cell from the outside but displays the peptide on MHC I to activate CTLs.

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What is "Diapedesis" or "Extravasation"?

The process where immune cells squeeze through vessel walls to enter tissue at an infection site.

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What is "Disassortative Mating" in the context of MHC?

Evidence suggests individuals are attracted to people with different MHC haplotypes (mediated by pheromones/smell).

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What is "HLA Typing"?

The scientific process of matching tissue donors to recipients, often done with flow cytometry.

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What is "Reversion" in live attenuated vaccines?

When a weakened vaccine strain mutates back to the original virulent "wild type" (e.g., oral polio vaccine).

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What is "The Proteasome" analogous to in these notes?

A "wood chipper" that chops worn-out or viral proteins into peptides (   amino acids) for MHC I loading.

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What is considered the third and final level of immunity?

The antigen-specific response.

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What is Rhogam and how does it prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn?

It is IgG specific for RhD antigen; it opsonizes fetal blood cells in the mother's circulation so they are destroyed before her immune system can mount a memory response.

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What is the "Anamnestic response"?

The logarithmic (4 orders of magnitude) amplification of immune function during a secondary infection.

55
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What is the "Antiviral State" triggered by Interferon?

Interferon shuts down protein synthesis in the cell to halt viral replication; it damages tissue but protects neighbors from spread.

56
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What is the "best student answer" for why we have B and T cells?

"B cells patrol the outside of the cell, T cells patrol the inside."

57
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What is the "exception" to the rule that alpha-beta TCRs recognize peptides?

At CD1, where alpha-beta TCRs recognize glycolipids.

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What is the "Red Queen Hypothesis" in immunology?

The idea of an immunological arms race: pathogens evolve to block defenses, and hosts evolve new defenses just to "keep in the same place" (survive).

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What is the "unusual property" of thymic cells during gestation?

They express every protein the genome can encode to ensure no T cells react to self-peptides.

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how TCRs recognize antigens

Can ONLY bind antigen if displayed on MHC I or MHC II ("silver platter").

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how BCRs recognize antigens

Can bind antigen freely floating in blood or lymph.

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Antigen

Individual protein.

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Hapten

Molecule too small to immunize alone; must be coupled to a carrier.

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Neutralizing antibodies

Blocks the virus from attaching to tissue (prevents infection).

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Non-neutralizing antibodies

Binds the virus but may not protect.

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What is the end product of T cell activation?

Cytotoxic killing or helper functions.

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What is the function of IL-2?

It stimulates cell division and drives clonal selection and amplification during infection.

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What is the primary target of NK cells (Natural Killers)?

Cells with low MHC I expression and antibody-coated cells.

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What is the primary target of NKT cells?

Mycobacterial infections (e.g., TB, leprosy).

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What is the result of a malfunction in the antigen-specific immune response?

Autoimmunity, where the immune system attacks the body's own tissue.

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What is the role of the CD40/CD40 ligand interaction?

It is an additional form of co-stimulation important in antibody production.

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What is the role of the Invariant chain (Ii) and CLIP in MHC II?

Ii keeps the binding cleft intact during synthesis; it is trimmed to CLIP, which is removed only when the actual peptide is ready to be loaded.

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What is the single most important antiviral mechanism?

CD8 CTLs (Adaptive); though Interferon is the most important early mechanism.

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What is the starting point (phenotype) for all CD helper cells before differentiation?

TH0.

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Structure of TCR

Alpha-beta heterodimer.

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Structure of BCR

Membrane-bound antibody molecule.

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What is the theoretical recognition capability of a unique TCR?

Each unique TCR can, in theory, recognize a different peptide (antigen).

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What killing mechanism involving a ligand is expressed by all killer cells (NK, NKT, CTL)?

FAS ligand.

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What major threat to immunological memory can "wipe out years" of stored immunity?

Measles; the virus directly attacks memory cells and other immune cells.

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What molecular system in the thymus causes the expression of every protein the genome encodes?

AIRE (AutoImmune REgulator).

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What molecule is the most potent pro-inflammatory trigger for an antiviral response, and why?

Double-stranded RNA (dsRNA); human cells never produce it, but most viruses do, making it a perfect alarm signal.

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What signal do infected or damaged cells display to indicate they are ready to be destroyed?

FAS receptor (the "please kill me" signal).

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What three steps occur after a BCR is bound by its antigen?

1. Clonal selection and clonal amplification.
2. Production of soluble antibodies.
3. This occurs only after activation.

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What unique component makes each T or B cell different from the others?

Only the receptor protein: the T cell receptor (TCR) or the B cell receptor (BCR).

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What was Maurice Hillman's solution to making carbohydrate vaccines "boostable"?

Carbohydrate-Protein Conjugate Vaccine: Covalently coupling the carbohydrate to a protein carrier.

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What was the conclusion of the Zinkernagel and Doherty "MHC Restriction" experiment?

The TCR recognizes BOTH the peptide AND the MHC display platform; CTLs will only kill if the MHC haplotype matches what they were trained on.

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What was the first intentional vaccine, and who developed it?

The Smallpox vaccine by Edward Jenner (using cowpox).

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Where do CD4 and CD8 bind on the MHC molecule, and what are they called?

They bind to the back side of the MHC pocket; they are called co-receptors.

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Which cell is described as "central" because it has three display platforms?

The dendritic cell.

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Which cells recognize MHC I?

CD8 T cell.

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Which cells recognize MHC II?

CD4 T cell.

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Which cells recognize CD1?

NKT cell.

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Which cytokine drives CD4 T cells toward TH2 and TH17 phenotypes?

TH2: IL-4.
TH17: IL-17.

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Which cytokine drives CD4 T cells toward the TH1 phenotype, and what is its role?

Interferon-gamma (IFN-  γ); it is the strongest pro-inflammatory cytokine.

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Which receptor likely evolved first: BCR or TCR?

B cell receptor (BCR); the TCR is useless without MHC, implying they had to co-evolve simultaneously.

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Which T helper phenotype is critical for surviving a fungal infection?

TH1 (dominance suggests survival, while TH2 dominance suggests poor prognosis).

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Which Toll-like receptor (TLR) detects dsRNA?

TLR3.

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Who developed more than half of all vaccines used today and created the conjugate strategy?

Maurice Hillman.

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Who/what is responsible for making you feel "sick" during an infection?

Interferon and other inflammatory molecules, not the virus itself.

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Why are CTLs and CD4s restricted from privileged sites?

Their response is too damaging and would cause irreversible tissue damage.