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Last updated 1:14 PM on 3/18/26
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104 Terms

1
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The maximum FDP may be extended by up to _ hour/s.

1

2
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How many times may the FDP be extended in any 7 consecutive days?

2

3
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If FDP gets extended, by how many hours does the pre and postflight rest have to be increased?

1,2

4
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If FDP gets extended, by how many hours does postflight rest have to be increased?

4

5
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The extension of max daily FDP shall not be combined with split duty in the same duty period.

True

6
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Extension can be applied by Crew Planning division until crew check on for FDP

True

7
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What is the duty hour limit in any 7 consecutive days?

60 duty hours

8
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What is the duty hour limit in any 14 consecutive days?

110 duty hours

9
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What is the duty hour limit in any 28 consecutive days?

190 duty hours

10
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What is the duty hour limit in one calendar year?

2000 duty hours

11
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What is the flight hour limit in any 28 consecutive days?

100 flight hours

12
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What is the flight hour limit in any 12 consecutive calendar months?

1000 flight hours

13
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What is the flight hour limit in any 1 calendar year?

900 flight hours

14
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Positioning after operating counts as duty, but does not count as FDP.

True

15
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Positioning after reporting, but prior to operating with a break not exceeding 6 hours is:

1x total positioning time as FDP

16
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Positioning after reporting, but prior to operating with a break more than 6 hours, but less than suitable rest period is:

0.5x total positioning time as FDP

17
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Positioning after reporting, but prior to operating with a suitable rest period is:

No FDP

18
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When does a break starts/ends for a split duty?

Starts 20 min after all engines are stopped and ends 1h10min before STD

19
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Split duty shall not follow a reduced rest.

True

20
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The maximum FDP for a split duty may be increased by _% of the break

50

21
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The break on the ground for a split duty counts full as FDP

True

22
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Commander’s authority grants him/her authority over his crew member during FDP and off duty when away from the crew base:

Yes

23
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Commander’s authority grants him/her authority over persons on board his plane from the moment doors are closed till the moment they are opened after the flight:

Yes

24
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Commander’s authority grants him/her authority to make a final decision with regard to:

Departure, flight continuation and landing at planned destination or alternate aerodrome;
Acceptance or rejection of the aircraft iaw. MEL or CDL;
Fuel on board required for the flight.

25
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Commander’s authority grant’s him/her authority to in the interest of flight safety:

Refuse transportation/disembark any passenger/cargo (under influence or inadmissible passengers that could pose risk);
Demand that any person on board fully complies with his orders;
Take measures in order to prevent any danger threatening the aircraft, persons or property carried;
Discontinue the flight and perform a forced landing.

26
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Commander’s authority grants him/her authority in case of imminent danger to execute Commander’s Emergency Rights:

Declare emergency;
Inform ATS;
Take any action in the interest of flight safety, when such action violates SOPs, notify local authority without delay.

27
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Commander’s authority grants him/her authority to:

Delegate conduct of the flight to another qualified pilot in case of commander’s incapacitation.

28
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Commander is responsible for the:

Safety of all crew members, pax and cargo on board as soon as he arrives until he leaves;
Operation and safety of the airplane from the moment of first ready to taxi prior take-off till the moment it comes to rest and engines are shut down.

29
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Responsible for OPS info are:

Flight dispatcher - day to day operational information;
Flight operations planning and support specialist - information pertaining to routes, aerodromes, aircraft (FMC, etc.);
Flight operations engineer - for weight and balance issues.

30
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By signing the OFP, time log and the loadsheet, the commander confirms that all preparations have been made and that he/she is satisfied that the airplane is airworthy:

Yes

31
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Which authority sharing system does airbaltic has?

Partial shared system

32
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Primary responsibility for the flight planning and re-planning while the aircraft is on the ground rests with:

OCC

33
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Primary responsibility for the planning and re-planning while the aircraft is in flight rest with:

Commander

34
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When can a flight depart early (within 15 minutes window ahead of the STD)

If no more passengers, mail and cargo are expected;
In order to extend transit time at next station in case of critical load or insufficient ground equipment, provided no revenue load is left behind;
If the STA at next station is expected to be exceeded, provided that no revenue load is left behind

35
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When can a flight depart early (more than 15 minutes window ahead of the STD):

In order to avoid certain meteorological or other conditions, which might affect further operation of the flight, loss of revenue is kept to a minimum;
Non-scheduled flights (ferry, charter, additional etc.) are allowed to depart up to 30min ahead of STD

36
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In case of delay of _ minutes, the commander shall notify OCC immediately

10

37
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The commander shall immediately be notified by OCC as soon as a delay is expected to occur

Yes

38
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In case of a delay crew flight time limitation has to be considered, as well as a need for replacement crew

Yes

39
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In case of a ramp inspection, the commander’s responsibilities are:

Accept the inspecting team on board the aircraft by recording their names, ID numbers, ID card validity date on the VR;
Reflect any findings or verbal remarks on the VR;
Cooperate with inspectors by explaining airBaltic procedures to extent possible;
Inform inspectors of the STD;
Inform OCC whenever departure is being delayed over 5min

40
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airBaltic is authorized to perform generic RNP AR approached with RNP:

> or = 0.3

41
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RVSM airspace ranges from (inclusive):

FL290 to FL410

42
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What is the minimum separation in RVSM airspace?

1000’ or 300m

43
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Until what time does a pilot counts as inexperienced on type?

After passing type rating/command course, associated LIFUS, line check and until: 100 hours and 10 sectors with 120 consecutive days;
150 flight hours and 20 sectors (no time limit)

44
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An inexperienced FO with less than 500 block hours on CS 25 shall factor the crosswind values for T/O and LDG by 0.7

Yes

45
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What is the minimum number of cabin for boarding?

2 (if passengers don’t exceed 100)

46
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What is the minimum number of cabin crew for boarding with refueling?

3

47
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What are the main principles when operating with reduced number of cabin crew?

Pax should be seated close to floor level exits;
Electrical power available to aircraft;
No refueling/defueling takes place;
Commander must approve it and together with GH agree on max pax to be carried;
Max 50 pax per cabin crew;
Incapacitated crew member counts as a passenger;
One cabin crew is SCC;
Pre-boarding checks are done;
Flight crew approves boarding;
SCC performs pre-boarding safety briefing with all crew;
Pax must be seated so they can see the safety demo;
Evacuation iaw. cc distribution and door responsibilities;
Commander completes FSR;
CC complete Cabin safety report;
DH crew cover overwings;

48
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In case SCC is unable to operate and is incapacitated:

Flight requires authorization from COO/SVP flight ops;
To dispatch from outstation only;
SCC is replaced by the most qualified cc;
Another SCC is made available when passing next airBaltic base

49
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Additional flight crew member is:

Line supervision captain

50
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Additional flight crew member is:

Safety pilot

51
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Additional flight crew member is:

Test pilot

52
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Additional cabin crew member is:

Line instructor

53
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Additional cabin crew member is:

Trainee

54
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Additional cabin crew member is:

Personnel or crew members other than cabin crew

55
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Supernumerary crew members are:

CAA inspector/representative with appropriate certificate/permission;
Flight/Cabin crew members, technicians with appropriate certificate;
Other certifying/contractor staff upon special permission

56
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If crew consists of captain + captain the order of how a commander is assigned is:

TRI, Line supervision captain, captain

57
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Having the same qualification level captains, the one with the earliest date of employment is designated commander

Yes

58
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Instructor/LSC, having a training/checking task for the flight shall be the commander, regardless of which seat (LP/RP) he/she occupies, and shall sign all the documents requiring commanders signature

Yes

59
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When instructor/LSC is occupying a jump seat, the commander to be checked or trained is designated “Commander under supervision” and shall sign all the documents

Yes

60
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What does “I have command” callout means?

Change of command, while occupying jump seat

61
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A change of command requires the following:

Notification to OCC and FSR

62
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Deep diving below _m must not be performed within __h prior to flight duty

10, 48

63
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Blood may not be donated within __h of flight duty

24

64
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Crew controllers supervisor is responsible for changes in published schedule from:

The day after tomorrow

65
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Crew controllers are responsible for changes in published schedule from:

The actual day and the next day

66
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In case a crew member arrives after midnight into his/her day off by more than 2 hours, he may:

Either choose another day off or claim double payment for all the time spent after midnight

67
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In case a crew member arrives after midnight into his/her day off by less than 2 hours, he may:

Claim double payment for all the time spent after midnight

68
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Late type of disruptive schedule means:

For early start a duty starting 05:00-06:59;
For late finish a duty finishing 00:00-01:59

69
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Local night is:

A period of 8 hours falling between 22:00-08:00 local time

70
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WOCL is:

A period between 02:00-05:59 in the time zone the crew member is acclimatized

71
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What does S mean in the SADIE acronym?

Share:
Collect the facts.
Use all available resources.
Identify the factors which define the situation.

72
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What does A mean in the SADIE acronym?

Analyze:
Analyze the facts and the context.
Identify alternatives.
Weigh impact of alternatives.

73
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What does D mean in the SADIE acronym?

Develop solution:
Select a response from available alternatives.
Communicate the chosen solution to crew.
Receive a read back to confirm understanding of solution.

74
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What does I mean in the SADIE acronym?

Implement:
Implement solution as developed and communicated.
Stick to the plan. Do not change the solution without starting from the beginning of this procedure.

75
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What does E mean in the SADIE acronym?

Evaluate results:
Closely monitor the situation.
Identify any differences from intended results.
Make adjustments to the solution as needed to achieve required result.
Start at the beginning of this procedure if major changes are required to already implemented solution.

76
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What is a minimum sector altitude (MSA)?

MSA is given on IAL chart and is based on a margin of 1000’ within a distance of 25NM

77
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What is minimum obstacle clearance altitude (MOCA)?

MOCA is the lowest published altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, off airway routes or route segments, which meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment.

78
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What is route minimum off-route altitude (MORA)?

MORA is derived by Jeppesen, provides known obstruction clearance 10NM either side of the route centerline including a 10NM radius beyond the fix. Clears all obstacle by 1000’ where highest ref points are 5000’ MSL or lower and by 2000’ where red points are 5001’ MSL or higher.

79
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What is grid minimum off-route altitude (MORA)?

Grid MORA provides 1000’ clearance in areas where the ref point is 5000’ MSL or lower and 2000’ clearance where ref points are 5001’ or higher, when provided by Jeppesen. When provided by state - 2000’ in mountainous areas and 1000’ in non-mountainous areas. Do not account for radio coverage.

80
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What is minimum enroute altitude (MEA)?

MEA is the lowest published altitude between radio fixes that meets obstacle and navigational requirements. MEA applies to the entire width of the airway, segment or route.

81
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MSA, MOCA, MORA shall be corrected for wind, temperature and QNH:

Add 500’ for every 10kt wind in excess of 30kt, max correction 2000’
Add 4% per 10C below standard temperature
Add 30’ per HPA below standard

82
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What is the minimum runway width approved for operation?

30m

83
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What is the minimum RFFS for planning at departure and destination?

6(one lower, but with non-scheduled and/or non-commercial ops), with tempo downgrade to 4 (not more than 72 hours)

84
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What is the minimum RFFS for planning at alternate?

4

85
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TDZ RVR/visibility shall never be below landing minima:

True

86
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Midpoint RVR shall never be below takeoff minima, if aircraft cannot be slowed down to approximately 60 knots

True

87
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If midpoint RVR is not available then stop end RVR shall never be below takeoff minima

True

88
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Stop-end RVR is for information only

True

89
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The reported RVR value representative of the initial part of the takeoff run can not be replaced by pilot assessment

False

90
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The minimum RVR shall be achieved for all parts within the calculated ASD

True

91
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Planning minima for DEST with type B approach:

VIS at or above the specified RVR/VIS for landing minima

92
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Planning minima for DEST with type A approach:

VIS at or above specified RVR/VIS for landing minima and ceiling at or above MDH (250’)

93
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Planning minima for DEST with circling approach:

VIS at or above 5km and ceiling at or above 2000’ or the specified landing minima, whichever is higher

94
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A TAF that is issued every 3 hours is valid for _hours:

9

95
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A TAF that is issued every 18 hours is valid for _hours:

6

96
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An amendment to a 9HR TAF/FC does automatically affect and amend the 18HR TAF/FT

False

97
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Operation on runway with RCC0 is prohibited:

True

98
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What does reserve fuel consists of?

Contingency fuel, destination alternate, final reserve fuel, additional fuel

99
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Can contingency fuel be used on ground?

Yes, up to 50% in exceptional cases

100
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In case of LMC, how many kg shall be used for a piece of luggage, if not specified?

15kg