Regulation & AntiIce

What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a “serious injury”?

48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury.

Which of the following constitutes “substantial damage” according to NTSB Part 830?

Failure of a component which would adversely affect the performance, and which would require replacement.

Which incident requires an immediate notification to NTSB?

Flight control system malfunction.

Within what time period should the nearest NTSB field office be notified when an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage?

Immediately.

Within how many days must the operator of an aircraft involved in an accident file a report to the NTSB?

10 days

When is an operator of an aircraft, which has been involved in an incident, required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB?

Only if requested to do so by the NTSB.

Which is the correct symbol for design cruising speed?

Vc

What is V2 speed

Takeoff safety speed.

Which speed symbol indicates the maximum operating limit speed for an airplane?

V_MO/M_MO.

What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed?

V_MU.

Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable?

V_S.

Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady-flight speed or stalling speed in the landing configuration?

V_S0.

The symbol for the speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail during takeoff is

V_EF.

The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is

V1

The minimum speed during takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance is indicated by symbol

V1

A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to

Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH.

When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed?

When three Category II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing.

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?

No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.

When a facsimile replacement is received for an airman’s medical certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid?

60 Days

Unless otherwise authorized, when is the pilot in command required to hold a type rating?

When operating an aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.

in a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service?

8 hours.

The flight instruction of other pilots in air transportation service by an airline transport pilot is restricted to

36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.

“Window of circadian low” means a period of maximum sleepiness that occurs between

0200 – 0559

A “calendar day” is

a 24-hour period from 0000 to 2359 UTC or local time.

“Rest period” means

a continuous period determined prospectively during which the flightcrew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder.

“Physiological night’s rest” means

10 hours of rest that encompasses the hours of 0100 and 0700 at the crewmember’s home base.

In order to be assigned for duty, each flightcrew member must report

for any flight duty period rested and prepared to perform his/her assigned duties.

Flightcrew members must receive fatigue education and awareness training

annually for flightcrew member schedulers, operational control individuals, and flightcrew members and dispatchers.

The time spent resting during unaugmented operations will not be counted towards the flight duty period limitation if the rest period is at least

3 hours long after reaching suitable accommodations.

Notification of the rest opportunity period during unaugmented operations, must be

given before the beginning of the flight duty period.

If the augmented flightcrew member is not acclimated, the

maximum flight duty period given in 14 CFR part 117, Table C (not included herein) is reduced by 30 minutes.

After takeoff, unforeseen circumstances arise. In this case, the flight duty period may be extended by as much as

necessary to land at the next destination airport or alternate airport.

The flight duty period may be extended due to unforeseen circumstances before takeoff by as much as

2 hours.

For passenger operations under Part 121, a flightcrew member may exceed maximum flight time limitations if

unforeseen operational circumstances arise after takeoff.

For a short-call reserve, the reserve availability period may not exceed

14 hours.

Limiting flight time for all flightcrew members will include

any flying by flightcrew members for any certificate holder or 91K program manager.

Flight duty period hours for flight crew members are limited to

190 hours in any 672 consecutive hours.

Flightcrew member’s flight duty periods are limited to

60 hours in any 168 consecutive hours.

Flight duty period hours for flightcrew members are limited to

60 hours in any 168 consecutive hours.

Flight time hours for flightcrew members are limited to

100 hours in any 672 consecutive hours.

A flightcrew member must be given a rest period before beginning any reserve or flight duty period, of

30 consecutive hours in the past 168 consecutive hours.

To be considered acclimated in a new theater of operations, a required flight crew member must have __ consecutive hours of rest.

36

No flightcrew member may accept an assignment without scheduled rest opportunities for

more than 3 consecutive nighttime flights that infringe on the window of circadian low.

A person who is not authorized to conduct direct air carrier operations, but who is authorized by the Administrator to conduct operations as a U.S. commercial operator, will be issued

an Operating Certificate.

Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area?

Operations Specifications.

The pilot in command (PIC) of an aircraft must always

remember the PIC is the final authority as to the operation of the aircraft in the air or on the ground.

No person may operate a U.S. registered civil aircraft

for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved AFM or RFM available.

A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding

8 hours.

Pilot performance can be seriously degraded by

prescribed and over-the-counter medications.

At what maximum indicated airspeed may a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane be operated within Class D airspace?

200 knots.

What is the maximum indicated airspeed a turbine-powered aircraft may be operated below 10,000 feet MSL?

250 knots.

At what maximum indicated airspeed can a reciprocating-engine airplane operate in the airspace underlying Class B airspace?

200 knots.

At what maximum indicated airspeed can a B-727 operate within Class B airspace without special ATC authorization?

250 knots.

What is the maximum indicated airspeed a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane may be operated within Class B airspace?

250 knots.

When may ATC request a detailed report on an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?

When priority has been given.

During an emergency, a pilot in command does not deviate from a 14 CFR rule but is given priority by ATC. To whom or under what condition is the pilot required to submit a written report?

Upon request by ATC, submit a written report within 48 hours to the ATC manager.

When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply?

The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart for the airport.

The prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 32 for the runway of intended operation is not reported. What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of the RVR value?

5/8 SM.

What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of a prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 16 when that RVR value is not reported?

1/4 SM.

Before requesting RVSM clearance, each person

shall correctly annotate the flight plan.

A person may not file for RVSM clearance unless

the operator is authorized and the aircraft has been approved.

If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken?

Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance.

A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. What altitude should be used?

Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest.

What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure?

Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA.

After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach?

Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.

A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced two-way radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach?

At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.

What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR?

Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.

When is DME or suitable RNAV required for an instrument flight?

At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required.

A function of the minimum equipment list is to indicate instruments or equipment which

may be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft.

An approved minimum equipment list or FAA Letter of Authorization allows certain instruments or equipment to be inoperative

prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft if prescribed procedures are followed.

In what altitude structure is a transponder required when operating in controlled airspace?

Above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL.

Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out is mandated for aircraft operations in

Class A, B, and C airspace.

Which of the following flights may be made without ADS-B Out equipment installed?

A VFR flight that departs a Class D airport, cruises in Class E airspace at 7,500 ft. MSL, and arrives at another Class D airport.

When is Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out equipment required?

In Class E airspace above 10,000 ft. MSL, except at and below 2,500 ft. AGL.

What type of ADS-B equipment is required in Class A airspace?

ADS-B Out that operates on the frequency 1090 MHz.

For what purpose may cockpit voice recorders and flight data recorders not be used?

Determining any certificate action, or civil penalty, arising out of an accident or occurrence.

Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining

possible causes of accidents or incidents.

How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of an accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight?

60 days.

Which operational requirement must be observed when ferrying an air carrier airplane when one of its three turbine engines is inoperative?

The weather conditions at takeoff and destination must be VFR.

When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine, which operational requirement must be observed?

Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane.

Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine?

No passengers may be carried.

A certificate holder is notified that a person specifically authorized to carry a deadly weapon is to be aboard an aircraft. Except in an emergency, how long before loading that flight should the air carrier be notified?

A minimum of 1 hour.

Required aeronautical data for the approval of ETOPS routes beyond 180 minutes or operations in the North and South Polar areas must include

facilities at each airport or in the immediate area sufficient to protect the passengers from the elements and to see to their welfare.

Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight?

Appropriate dispatch office.

Which minimum level of RFFS do you need when filing an alternate using 180 minutes ETOPS rule?

ICAO Category 4.

For flight planning, a Designated ETOPS Alternate Airport for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by

ICAO Category 4, unless the airport’s RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 30 minutes.

ETOPS entry points mean the first entry point on the route of flight of an ETOPS flight using one-engine-inoperative cruise speed that is more than

60 minutes from an adequate airport for airplanes having two engines.

Which minimum level of RFFS do you need when filing an alternate using the beyond-180 minutes ETOPS rule?

ICAO Category 7.

What is required when listing an ETOPS Alternate Airport greater than 180 minutes?

Airlines are responsible for providing a passenger recovery plan that includes safe retrieval without undue delay.

If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document required under 14 CFR Part 121 dictates whether the flight may continue en route?

Certificate holder’s manual.

For which of these aircraft is the “clearway” for a particular runway considered in computing takeoff weight limitations?

Turbine-engine-powered transport airplanes certificated after September 30, 1958.

What restrictions must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment of an airplane operated under 14 CFR Part 121?

Cargo may be carried aft of a divider if properly secured by a safety belt or other tiedown having enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting.

What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane?

The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment.

Which restriction applies to a cargo bin in a passenger compartment? The bin

must withstand the load factor required of passenger seats, multiplied by 1.15, using the combined weight of the bin and the maximum weight of the cargo that may be carried in the bin.

Which requirement applies to emergency equipment (fire extinguishers, megaphones, first-aid kits, and crash ax) installed in an air carrier airplane?

Emergency equipment must be clearly identified and clearly marked to indicate its method of operation.

The emergency lights on a passenger-carrying airplane must be armed or turned on during

taxiing, takeoff, and landing.

If a passenger-carrying landplane is required to have an automatic deploying escape slide system, when must this system be armed?

For taxi, takeoff, and landing.

If there is a required emergency exit located in the flight crew compartment, the door which separates the compartment from the passenger cabin must be

latched open during takeoff and landing.

Federal Aviation Regulations require that interior emergency lights must

be operable manually from the flight crew station and a point in the passenger compartment.

When may two persons share one approved safety belt in a lounge seat?

Only during the en route flight.