Module 6 - sensory perception

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Last updated 1:32 AM on 5/15/26
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79 Terms

1
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What are the extraocular muscles responsible for?

They control the movement of the eye.

2
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What is the purpose of a Snellen chart?

To assess distance visual acuity.

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What does the Rosenbaum pocket screener assess?

Near visual acuity.

4
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What is ptosis?

Drooping of the eyelid.

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What is nystagmus?

Involuntary oscillation of the eyeball.

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What does BCVA stand for?

Best Corrected Visual Acuity.

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What defines legal blindness?

BCVA that does not exceed 20/200 in the better eye or a visual field of 20 degrees or less.

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What is low vision?

Visual impairment that requires devices and strategies to perform visual tasks.

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What is the primary goal of managing low vision?

To support independence and adaptation to visual loss.

10
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What is glaucoma?

A group of ocular conditions characterized by damage to the optic nerve related to increased intraocular pressure.

11
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What are common risk factors for glaucoma?

Age over 55-60, family history, and certain ethnic backgrounds.

12
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What are the clinical manifestations of glaucoma?

Peripheral vision loss, blurring, halos, and difficulty focusing.

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What is the purpose of tonometry?

To assess intraocular pressure (IOP).

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What is a cataract?

An opacity or cloudiness of the lens.

15
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What are the three types of cataracts?

Traumatic, congenital, and senile cataracts.

16
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What are common symptoms of cataracts?

Painless blurry vision, sensitivity to glare, and reduced visual acuity.

17
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What is phacoemulsification?

A surgical procedure for cataract removal using ultrasonic devices.

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What is the role of the nurse in managing patients with glaucoma?

To educate about self-care and maintain adherence to therapeutic regimens.

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What is the significance of the Amsler grid in eye assessments?

It is used to test for visual field defects.

20
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What is the primary treatment goal for glaucoma?

To prevent further optic nerve damage and maintain IOP within a safe range.

21
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What should be assessed in patients with low vision?

Functional ability and coping strategies related to visual impairment.

22
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What is the recommended approach for describing food placement to a patient with low vision?

Use clock terms to indicate the position of food items.

23
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What is the recommended intervention when assisting a legally blind patient?

Allow the patient to hold the nurse's arm above the elbow while walking.

24
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What is the importance of collaboration with low-vision specialists?

To provide comprehensive support and resources for adaptation.

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What are the diagnostic findings for cataracts?

Decreased visual acuity and lens opacity observed through an ophthalmoscope.

26
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What is the role of optical coherence tomography?

To obtain high-resolution images of the retina and optic nerve.

27
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What is the significance of assessing visual fields?

To detect peripheral vision loss associated with conditions like glaucoma.

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What is the purpose of dilating eye drops in preoperative care for cataract surgery?

To prepare the eye for surgery by widening the pupil.

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What should patients be instructed to do if they experience vision changes after cataract surgery?

Call their primary provider immediately.

30
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What is a vital nursing intervention for patients with eye and vision disorders?

Patient education.

31
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What should patients avoid doing for an extended period after cataract surgery?

Bending or stooping.

32
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What is the most common type of retinal detachment?

Rhegmatogenous detachment.

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What are the manifestations of retinal detachment?

Sensation of a shade or curtain, bright flashing lights, and sudden onset of floaters.

34
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What is the purpose of a scleral buckle in retinal detachment surgery?

To compress the sclera and support the retina.

35
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What is age-related macular degeneration (AMD)?

A leading cause of irreversible blindness and visual impairment, characterized by the breakdown of retinal layers.

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What are the two types of age-related macular degeneration?

Dry (nonexudative) and wet (exudative) types.

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What is a common cause of blindness in adults 40 years and older?

Diabetic retinopathy.

38
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What should be done in the case of chemical eye injuries?

Flush the eyes and do not remove foreign objects.

39
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What is the recommended action if a patient has a threatened corneal perforation?

Do not irrigate the corneal surface.

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What is the significance of patient education after eye surgery?

It ensures understanding of signs of complications and promotes safety.

41
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What should patients do if they experience increased pain after cataract surgery?

Contact their healthcare provider if pain is not relieved by acetaminophen.

42
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What is the role of vitrectomy in retinal detachment treatment?

It is an intraocular procedure to repair the retina.

43
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What are the safety measures for patients with low vision?

Education on safety strategies in the hospital and home setting.

44
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What is the importance of supportive care in managing age-related macular degeneration?

To promote safety and improve function through recommendations like better lighting and magnification devices.

45
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What should patients be cautious about when climbing stairs after cataract surgery?

They should be careful to prevent falls.

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What is the best way to sneeze if necessary after cataract surgery?

With an open mouth to decrease intraocular pressure.

47
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What is the classification of conjunctivitis?

By cause: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic, allergic, and toxic.

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What is a key characteristic of viral conjunctivitis?

It is contagious.

49
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What should be included in discharge instructions after cataract surgery?

Avoid lying on the side of the affected eye the night after surgery.

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What is the rationale for avoiding heavy lifting after cataract surgery?

To prevent increased intraocular pressure and complications.

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What is the significance of the retinal pigment epithelium (RPE) in retinal health?

It supports the sensory retina and is crucial for visual function.

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What are the diagnostic findings for retinal detachment?

Assessment of visual acuity, indirect ophthalmoscope examination, and imaging techniques.

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What is the primary function of the tympanic membrane?

To transmit sound vibrations from the outer ear to the middle ear.

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What are the two main types of hearing loss?

Conductive and sensorineural hearing loss.

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What is presbycusis?

Gradual hearing loss associated with aging.

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What is tinnitus?

Perception of sound, often described as ringing in the ears.

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What does the Rinne test assess?

It compares air conduction to bone conduction of sound.

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What is the purpose of tympanometry?

To evaluate the function of the middle ear and the mobility of the tympanic membrane.

59
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What is the main treatment for acute otitis media?

Antibiotic therapy.

60
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What is a myringotomy?

A surgical procedure to create an incision in the tympanic membrane to relieve pressure or drain fluid.

61
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What are common manifestations of external otitis?

Pain, tenderness, discharge, edema, erythema, and hearing loss.

62
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What is a cholesteatoma?

A benign tumor that can cause hearing loss and may lead to complications if untreated.

63
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What is the significance of the Weber test?

It helps determine the type of hearing loss by assessing lateralization of sound.

64
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What is the first step in managing cerumen impaction?

Gentle irrigation with low pressure to remove the blockage.

65
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What is the primary goal of patient education after mastoid surgery?

To prevent infection and promote healing.

66
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What is benign positional vertigo (BPV)?

A condition characterized by brief episodes of vertigo triggered by changes in head position.

67
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What dietary modification is recommended for patients with Ménière's disease?

A low-sodium diet (1000 to 1500 mg/day).

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What is the role of audiometry in hearing assessment?

To measure hearing acuity and identify the degree of hearing loss.

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What is the primary cause of sensorineural hearing loss?

Damage to the cochlea or vestibulocochlear nerve.

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What are the symptoms of labyrinthitis?

Dizziness, hearing loss, and tinnitus.

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What is the purpose of platform posturography?

To assess balance and postural control.

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What is the main complication associated with chronic otitis media?

Damage to the tympanic membrane and ossicles, leading to hearing loss.

73
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What is the significance of the auditory brainstem response test?

It evaluates the auditory pathway from the cochlea to the brainstem.

74
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What is the recommended communication strategy for interacting with hearing-impaired individuals?

Use a low-tone, normal voice, speak slowly and distinctly, and reduce background noise.

75
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What is the primary function of the vestibular system?

To maintain balance and spatial orientation.

76
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What is the treatment for acoustic neuroma?

Surgical removal or monitoring, depending on the size and symptoms.

77
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What is the purpose of electronystagmography?

To assess vestibular function by measuring eye movements.

78
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What is the role of diuretics in treating Ménière's disease?

To help reduce fluid retention in the inner ear.

79
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What is the primary concern during the recovery period after mastoid surgery?

Monitoring for signs of infection and managing pain.