EMT Chapters 7-13 Review

The areas of the infant's skull that have not yet fused together are called ________. A) ventricles B) cranial valleys C) sutures D) fontanelles

D

Physical changes that typically occur in early adults include an: A) increase in muscle strength and reflexes. B) increase in height because of spinal disc expansion. C) increase in fatty tissue, which leads to weight gain. D) increase in respiratory rate due to increased metabolism.

C

In pre-conventional reasoning, children: A) make decisions based on their conscience. B) look for approval from their peers and society. C) act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want. D) blame their actions on what they have observed in older children.

C

The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of: A) 18 and 22 years. B) 19 and 25 years. C) 21 and 30 years. D) 25 and 35 years.

B

When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that: A) deafness and blindness are a normal part of the process of aging. B) most older patients are confused due to a decrease in brain cells. C) age-related changes diminish the effectiveness of the eyes and ears. D) the majority of older patients experience a loss of low-frequency hearing.

C

Children of which age group are considered toddlers? A) 1-3 years B) 3-6 years C) 1 month to 1 year D) Over 6 years

A

Which of the following is a physical change that typically occurs in the adolescent age group? A) Secondary sexual development begins. B) Muscle and bone growth both decrease. C) The normal pulse rate steadily increases. D) The systolic blood pressure decreases.

A

As you and your partner are carrying a stable patient down a flight of stairs in a stair chair, you feel a sudden, sharp pain in your lower back. You should: A) reposition your hands and continue to move the patient. B) stop the move and request additional lifting assistance. C) guide your partner while moving the chair backwards. D) stop the move and have the patient walk down the stairs.

B

You are attending to a 22-year-old female patient who has overdosed. The patient is unresponsive in an upstairs bedroom. The most appropriate way to bring the patient downstairs is: A) secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the head end. B) secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the foot end. C) secured to a stair chair with the strongest provider at the head end. D) secured to a stair chair with the strongest provider at the foot end.

A

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate device to use when immobilizing a patient with a suspected spinal injury? A) Long backboard B) Scoop stretcher C) Portable stretcher D) Wheeled stretcher

A

To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should: A) flex at the waist instead of the hips. B) avoid the use of log rolls or body drags. C) use a direct carry whenever possible. D) keep the weight as close to your body as possible.

D

Which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is correct? A) The majority of a horizontal patient's weight is in the torso. B) Most of the patient's weight rests on the foot end of the stretcher. C) A semi-sitting patient's weight is equally distributed on both ends. D) The EMT at the patient's head will bear the least amount of weight.

A

It is essential that you ____________ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease. A) throw out B) decontaminate C) incinerate D) properly store

B

The MOST serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is: A) unnecessarily wasting time. B) injury to you or your patient. C) causing patient anxiety or fear. D) confusion among team members.

B

During an EMS call, you should take standard precautions: A) before you load the patient into the ambulance. B) after it has been determined that the patient is bleeding. C) immediately after completion of your primary assessment. D) before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact.

D

Which of the following actions would NOT be performed during the scene size-up? A) Asking a neighbor to secure the patient's dog B) Rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status C) Notifying the dispatcher to send fire personnel D) Noting the position of a crashed motor vehicle

B

An injured patient is assigned a total score of 9 on the GCS. He is assigned a score of 2 for eye opening, a score of 3 for verbal response, and a score of 4 for motor response. Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with his GCS score? A) Opens eyes in response to voice, makes incomprehensible sounds, localizes pain B) Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain C) Opens eyes spontaneously, is confused when spoken to, exhibits abnormal flexion D) Eyes remain closed, makes incomprehensible sounds, exhibits abnormal extension

B

Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the presence of any symptoms? A) A 44-year-old male with abdominal pain and severe dizziness B) A 49-year-old female with blurred vision and ringing in the ears C) A 55-year-old male with a severe headache and 2 days of nausea D) A 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis

D

A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious. He is screaming in pain and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should: A) ensure that his airway is patent. B) apply direct pressure to the wound. C) elevate his legs and keep him warm. D) administer 100% supplemental oxygen.

B

Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct? A) The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint. B) The secondary assessment should be performed en route to the hospital, regardless of the severity of the patient's condition. C) A secondary assessment should always be performed, even if you must continually manage life threats that were identified in the primary assessment. D) During the secondary assessment, the EMT's primary focus should be on taking the patient's vital signs and obtaining a SAMPLE history.

A

When you shine a light into one pupil, the normal reaction of the other pupil should be to: A) dilate. B) not react. C) become larger. D) become smaller.

D

Which of the following statements regarding oxygen is correct? A) Oxygen cylinders must always remain in an upright position. B) Oxygen is flammable and may explode if under high pressure. C) Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire. D) Oxygen is most safely administered in an enclosed environment.

C

Which of the following statements regarding breathing adequacy is correct? A) Patients with a grossly irregular breathing pattern usually do not require assisted ventilation. B) The single most reliable sign of breathing adequacy in the adult is his or her respiratory rate. C) Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate. D) A patient with slow respirations and adequate depth will experience an increase in minute volume.

C

Which of the following patients is breathing adequately? A) A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin B) A conscious female with facial cyanosis and rapid, shallow respirations C) A conscious male with respirations of 18 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume D) An unconscious 52-year-old female with snoring respirations and cool, pale skin

A

A man was found unresponsive in his bed at home. There is no evidence of injury and the patient's medical history is not known. The patient's face is cyanotic, yet the pulse oximeter reads 98%. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this? A) Severe pulmonary edema B) Carbon monoxide poisoning C) His extremities are cold D) Increased body temperature

B

Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator of adequately performed bag-valve mask ventilations in an apneic adult with a pulse? A) Twenty breaths/min being delivered to the adult B) Decreased compliance when squeezing the bag C) Consistently increasing heart rate D) Adequate rise of the chest when squeezing the bag

D

Which of the following patients should you place in the recovery position? A) A 19-year-old conscious male with a closed head injury and normal respirations B) A 24-year-old unconscious female who overdosed and has a reduced tidal volume C) A 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing D) A 40-year-old conscious female with a possible neck injury and regular respirations

C

Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is correct? A) The oxygen content in the alveoli is highest during the exhalation phase. B) Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries. C) The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the capillaries. D) Blood that returns to the lungs from the body has low levels of carbon dioxide.

B

The term "pharmacology" is MOST accurately defined as: A) the study of drugs that are produced illegally. B) the study of how medications affect the brain. C) the study of drugs and their actions on the body. D) the study of drug excretion from the human body.

C

Which of the following statements regarding parenteral medications is correct? A) Tylenol is an example of a parenteral medication because it is taken orally. B) Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications. C) Compared to enteral medications, parenteral medications have fewer side effects. D) Parenteral medications are absorbed by the body through the digestive system.

B

The amount of medication that is given is known as the _________. A) dose B) indication C) contraindication D) side effect

A

Which of the following is an example of a rules-based medication error? A) The EMT administers a drug that is contraindicated for the patient. B) The EMT administers the correct drug, but gives it by the wrong route. C) The EMT administers a drug that is not approved by the medical director. D) The EMT accidentally gives a higher drug dose than what is indicated.

C

When assessing an elderly male who complains of nausea and generalized weakness, you find that he takes atorvastatin (Lipitor) and amlodipine (Norvasc). These medications suggest a history of: A) bacterial infection. B) cardiovascular disease. C) reactive airway disease. D) non-insulin-dependent diabetes.

B

Which of the following clinical signs would necessitate the administration of naloxone (Narcan)? A) Tachycardia B) Hypertension C) Slow respirations D) Extreme agitation

C

You are dispatched to a state park for a young female experiencing an allergic reaction. Your assessment reveals that her breathing is severely labored and her blood pressure is very low. You carry epinephrine auto-injectors on your ambulance and have been trained and approved by your medical director to administer them. As your partner gives the patient supplemental oxygen, you attempt to contact medical control but do not have a signal from your cell phone. You should: A) notify dispatch and request that a paramedic unit respond to the scene so they can administer epinephrine to the patient. B) administer epinephrine to the patient, begin immediate transport, and attempt to contact medical control en route to the hospital. C) place her in a supine position, keep her warm, begin transport to the hospital, and request a paramedic intercept en route. D) immediately load the patient into the ambulance, begin transport, and reattempt to contact medical control when you receive a cell signal.

B

When should nonlifesaving interventions be performed for your multisystem trauma patient? A) En route to the hospital B) Prior to transport C) During the primary assessment D) Immediately after the injuries are discovered

A

Foods, medications, and insects are common causes of ________. A) septic shock B) anaphylactic shock C) neurogenic shock D) psychogenic shock

B

Your patient has a decreased cardiac output and poor myocardial contractility. This will likely lead to ___________. A) hypovolemic shock B) cardiogenic shock C) neurogenic shock D) septic shock

B

A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should: A) apply pressure to the brachial artery. B) apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist. C) administer high-flow supplemental oxygen. D) wrap the towel with pressure bandages.

B

A 25-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. She has signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the result of intrathoracic bleeding. Which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival? A) High-flow oxygen administration B) Full immobilization of her spine C) Intravenous fluid administration D) Rapid transport to a trauma center

D

To protect vital organs, the body compensates by directing blood flow away from organs that are more tolerant of low flow, such as: A) the skin. B) the heart. C) the brain. D) the lungs.

A

When treating an 80-year-old patient who is in shock, it is important to remember that: A) compensation from the respiratory system usually manifests with increased tidal volume. B) the older patient's central nervous system usually reacts more briskly to compensate for shock. C) medications older patients take for hypertension often cause an unusually fast heart rate. D) changes in gastric motility may delay gastric emptying, which increases the risk for vomiting.

D

Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the AED pads will be placed. You should: A) apply the AED pad at least 1 inch away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns. B) continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the patch. C) move the patch to another area of the patient's chest and then properly apply the AED pads. D) remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads.

D

If an object is visible in the unconscious patient's airway, you should __________. A) continue chest compressions B) leave it in place C) place the patient on his or her side D) remove it

D

Basic life support (BLS) is defined as: A) invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy, manual defibrillation, and advanced airway management. B) any form of emergency medical treatment that is performed by advanced EMTs, paramedics, physicians, and emergency nurses. C) basic lifesaving treatment that is performed by bystanders while EMS providers are en route to the scene of an emergency. D) noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.

D

CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is: A) prone. B) supine. C) horizontal. D) on a firm surface.

A

While rescuer one is finishing his or her fifth cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should: A) assess for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds. B) move to the opposite side of the patient's chest. C) give two breaths and prepare to start compressions. D) suction the patient's mouth and give two more ventilations.

B

The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during active compression-decompression CPR by: A) maintaining increased intrathoracic pressure during the downward stroke of each chest compression, which forces more blood from both of the ventricles. B) maximizing the amount of air in the lungs following chest recoil, which hyperinflates the lungs and forces more blood from the ventricle during each compression. C) drawing all of the air out of the lungs in between chest compressions, which causes positive intrathoracic pressure and a reduction of blood return to the right side of the heart. D) limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling.

D

When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest: A) until a radial pulse is felt. B) with one or two hands. C) to a depth of 1 to 2 inches. D) 80 to 100 times per minute.

B

Which of the following are noticeable characteristics of a 9-month-old infant? A) Places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up B) Knows his or her name, can walk without any assistance C) Responds to his or her name, crawls around efficiently D) Walks without help, becomes frustrated with restrictions

A

Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) a loss of respiratory muscle mass. B) increased stiffness of the thoracic cage. C) decreased residual volume. D) increased surface area available for air exchange.

D

Why does the incidence of diabetes mellitus increase with age? A) Decreased food intake, decreased weight gain, and decreased blood sugar levels B) Decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased insulin production C) Increased physical activity, increased food intake, and increased insulin production D) Decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased blood sugar levels

B

You are assessing a 13-month-old female who is running a fever and has been vomiting. While you are performing your physical examination on this child, you will MOST likely find that she: A) is unable to track your movements with her eyes. B) responds to her name but is fearful of your presence. C) will readily allow you to separate her from her mother. D) has bulging fontanelles secondary to severe dehydration.

B

An infant or small child's airway can be occluded if it is overextended or overflexed because: A) the back of the head is flat, which prevents a neutral position. B) he or she has a long neck, which makes the trachea prone to collapse. C) the occiput is proportionately large and the trachea is flexible. D) the tongue is proportionately small and can fall back into the throat.

C

The decline in cardiac function that commonly occurs in late adulthood is MOST often related to: A) hypotension. B) medication use. C) kidney failure. D) atherosclerosis.

D

You and your partner enter the residence of an elderly couple, both of whom are found unconscious in their bed. There is no evidence of trauma. As you begin your assessment, you and your partner notice the smell of natural gas in the residence. Which of the following should be your MOST appropriate action? A) Perform a rapid assessment and then move the patients from their residence. B) Request another ambulance to assist with lifting and moving the patients. C) Quickly exit the residence and request the fire department to move the patients. D) Rapidly remove the patients from their residence using a blanket or clothes drag.

D

Which of the following statements regarding the scoop stretcher is NOT correct? A) The construction of the scoop stretcher prohibits X-rays while the patient is on it. B) You must fully secure the patient to the scoop stretcher before moving him or her. C) A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient's spinal column. D) Both sides of the patient must be accessible for a scoop stretcher to be used.

C

An unrestrained patient is sitting in his car after an automobile crash. He is conscious and alert, has no visible trauma, and is complaining of neck and back pain. Before removing him from his car, you should: A) slide a scoop stretcher under his buttocks and rotate him laterally. B) apply a cervical collar and immobilize him with a vest-style device. C) perform a detailed head-to-toe assessment and apply a cervical collar. D) maintain manual stabilization of his head and grasp him by the clothes.

B

In most instances, you should move a patient on a wheeled ambulance stretcher by: A) pushing the foot of the stretcher while your partner guides the head. B) pushing the head of the stretcher while your partner guides the foot. C) slightly lifting the stretcher to prevent unnecessary patient movement. D) retracting the undercarriage and carrying the stretcher to the ambulance.

B

The extremity lift would NOT be appropriate to use on a patient: A) without a spinal injury. B) with a deformed humerus. C) who complains of nausea. D) with forearm lacerations.

B

To avoid injury when pushing a patient or other object, you should: A) push the patient from an overhead position if possible. B) avoid pushing the patient with your elbows fully extended. C) push from the area of your body between the knees and hips. D) kneel if you are pushing an object that is above waist level.

B

When carrying a patient up or down stairs, you should avoid: A) flexing your body at the knees. B) the use of more than two EMTs. C) using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible. D) the use of a long backboard or scoop stretcher.

C

A 71-year-old female slipped on a rug and fell. She is conscious and alert and complains of severe pelvic pain. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. Which of the following is NOT indicated for this patient? A) Rapid head-to-toe exam B) Application of a cervical collar C) Treating her for possible shock D) Gentle palpation of the pelvis

D

In which of the following situations is a pertinent negative identified? A) A 50-year-old woman states that nothing makes her chest pain better or worse. B) A 53-year-old man with dizziness also tells you that he has vomited three times. C) A 56-year-old woman states that her chest hurts when she takes a deep breath. D) A 59-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain but denies shortness of breath.

D

When a patient's respirations are shallow: A) chest rise will be easily noticeable. B) tidal volume is markedly reduced. C) oxygenation occurs more efficiently. D) carbon dioxide elimination is increased.

B

Palliating factors regarding a patient's pain involve those that: A) worsen the pain. B) alleviate the pain. C) initiate the pain. D) change the pain.

B

Which of the following questions is used to determine a patient's chief complaint? A) "What seems to be the matter?" B) "When did the chest pain begin?" C) "Are you having trouble breathing?" D) "Do you have a history of diabetes?"

A

In the adult, bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate less than _______ beats/min, and tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than _______ beats/min. A) 60, 100 B) 50, 110 C) 40, 120 D) 30, 130

A

Normal respiratory rates should not exceed _______ breaths per minute in toddlers and _______ breaths per minute in infants. A) 18, 28 B) 20, 30 C) 30, 40 D) 40, 60

D

When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that it is grossly irregular. You should: A) count the pulse rate for at least 30 seconds to ensure accuracy. B) count the number of pulsations in 15 seconds and multiply by four. C) count the number of pulsations in 30 seconds and multiply by two. D) count the pulse rate for a full minute to obtain an accurate reading.

D

After performing a primary assessment, a rapid exam of the body should be performed to: A) determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions. B) identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment. C) look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion. D) find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life.

B

You receive a call to a daycare center for an unresponsive 8-month-old infant. Upon arrival, you perform an assessment and determine that the infant is not breathing. Your next action should be to: A) open the airway and give two rescue breaths. B) begin chest compressions and request backup. C) immediately transport the child to the hospital. D) assess for a brachial pulse for 5 to 10 seconds.

D

The goal of the systematic head-to-toe exam that is performed during the secondary assessment is to: A) detect and treat all non-life-threatening injuries. B) assess only the parts of the body that are injured. C) definitively rule out significant internal injuries. D) locate injuries not found in the primary assessment.

D

A patient with high blood pressure would be expected to have skin that is: A) flushed and red. B) mottled and cool. C) pale and moist. D) cyanotic and dry.

A

When assessing a 62-year-old female with crushing chest pain, you note that her pulse is rapid and irregular. You should administer supplemental oxygen if needed and then: A) apply the AED and analyze her cardiac rhythm. B) transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit. C) document your findings and perform a detailed assessment. D) conclude that the irregular pulse is normal based on her age.

B

A crackling sound produced by air bubbles under the skin is called: A) crepitus B) rhonchi. C) Korotkoff sounds. D) subcutaneous emphysema.

D

A patient is sitting in a chair, leaning forward on his outstretched arms. His head and chin are thrust forward. This position indicates that he: A) has abdominal muscle spasms. B) is experiencing severe back pain. C) has a decreased level of consciousness. D) is experiencing difficulty breathing.

D

A patient with spontaneous respirations is breathing: A) at a normal rate. B) with shallow depth. C) without difficulty. D) without assistance.

D

When assessing motor function in a conscious patient's lower extremities, you should expect the patient to: A) wiggle his or her toes on command. B) feel you touching the extremity. C) note any changes in temperature. D) identify different types of stimuli.

A

An adult patient who is NOT experiencing difficulty breathing will: A) be able to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses. B) assume a position that will facilitate effective and easy breathing. C) exhibit an indentation above the clavicles and in between the ribs. D) have a respiratory rate that is between 20 and 24 breaths/min.

A

A patient's short-term memory is MOST likely intact if he or she correctly answers questions regarding: A) time and place. B) date and event. C) event and person. D) person and place.

B

Which of the following findings indicates that your patient has a patent airway? A) Audible breathing B) Forceful coughing C) Inspiratory stridor D) Unresponsiveness

B

A patient who does not respond to your questions, but moves or cries out when his or her trapezius muscle is pinched, is said to be: A) conscious and alert. B) completely unresponsive. C) responsive to verbal stimuli. D) responsive to painful stimuli.

D

When assessing a patient's abdomen, you will evaluate for all of the following, EXCEPT: A) subcutaneous emphysema. B) open wounds or eviscerations. C) gross bleeding and tenderness. D) rigidity and obvious bleeding.

A

Supplemental oxygen without assisted ventilation would MOST likely be administered to patients: A) who are semiconscious with shallow respirations. B) with rapid respirations and a reduced tidal volume. C) who have accessory muscle use and slow breathing. D) with difficulty breathing and adequate tidal volume.

D

The systematic head-to-toe assessment should be performed on: A) stable patients who are able to tell you exactly what happened. B) all patients with traumatic injuries who will require EMS transport. C) responsive medical patients and patients without a significant MOI. D) patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients.

D

Which of the following abnormal breath sounds indicates obstruction of the upper airway? A) Rales B) Stridor C) Crackles D) Rhonchi

B

Clinical signs of labored breathing include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) shallow chest movement. B) use of accessory muscles. C) supraclavicular retractions. D) gasping attempts to breathe.

A

For an adult, the normal resting pulse should be between: A) 50 and 60 beats/min. B) 50 and 70 beats/min. C) 60 and 100 beats/min. D) 70 and 110 beats/min.

C

As you assess the head of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, your partner should: A) maintain stabilization of the head. B) look in the ears for gross bleeding. C) prepare the immobilization equipment. D) assess the rest of the body for bleeding.

A

Pain that moves from its point of origin to another body location is said to be: A) radiating. B) referred. C) palliating. D) provoking.

A

Which of the following is the MOST accurate guide to palpating a pulse? A) Avoid compressing the artery against a bone or solid structure. B) Place the tips of your index and long fingers over the pulse point. C) Use your thumb to increase the surface area that you are palpating. D) Apply firm pressure to the artery with your ring and little fingers.

B

Which of the following medical history questions would be of LEAST pertinence in an acute situation? A) "Does the pain stay in your chest?" B) "Does your mother have diabetes?" C) "Has this ever happened to you before?" D) "Are there medications that you cannot take?"

B

During a 30-minute transport of a stable patient, you should reassess him or her at least ________ times. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 6

A

As time progresses following a significant injury: A) the patient's blood pressure elevates significantly. B) the patient's injuries will most likely be irreparable. C) most patients will die secondary to internal bleeding. D) the body's ability to compensate for shock decreases.

D

With regard to the assessment of a patient's cardiovascular status, capillary refill time is MOST reliable in: A) patients who are younger than 6 years of age. B) patients who are significantly hypotensive. C) patients who were exposed to cold temperatures. D) patients who are older than 70 years of age.

A

You respond to the residence of a 62-year-old male who is unresponsive. Your primary assessment reveals that he is apneic and pulseless. You should: A) start CPR and attach the AED as soon as possible. B) ask the family if the patient has a terminal disease. C) perform CPR and transport the patient immediately. D) notify dispatch and request a paramedic ambulance.

A

When interviewing a patient, you can show him or her that you understand the situation by: A) repeating statements back to him or her. B) using medical terminology whenever possible. C) maintaining constant eye contact with him or her. D) interrupting him or her as needed for clarification.

A

When using the pulse oximeter as part of your assessment of a patient, it is important to remember that: A) pulse oximetry is especially useful in patients who have cold extremities because vasoconstriction forces blood to the capillary beds. B) carbon monoxide has no effect on pulse oximetry readings because the pulse oximeter presumes that oxygen is saturating the hemoglobin. C) as long as the patient's oxygen saturation is greater than 95%, oxygen is usually not necessary, even if the patient is experiencing respiratory distress. D) any situation that causes vasoconstriction or loss of red blood cells, such as anemia or bleeding, may result in an inaccurate or misleading value.

D

Which of the following assessments would be the MOST useful in determining the possible cause of a patient's altered mental status? A) Respiratory rate B) Blood pressure C) Blood glucose level D) Capillary refill time

C