Ear, Nose, Throat, and Eye

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Last updated 8:37 PM on 5/26/26
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139 Terms

1
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What is the primary function of the ear?

The ear aids in hearing and maintaining equilibrium.

2
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What is the study of the ear, nose, and throat called?

Otorhinolaryngology.

3
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What are the components of the outer ear?

The pinna, auricle, and external auditory canal.

4
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What is the function of the ceruminous glands in the ear?

They secrete cerumen (earwax) to protect the inner structures of the ear.

5
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What is the tympanic cavity?

An air-filled chamber in the middle ear extending from the tympanic membrane.

6
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What are the tiny bones in the middle ear called?

Malleus, incus, and stapes.

7
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What is the function of the eustachian tube?

It helps maintain equal pressure inside and outside the ear.

8
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What does the cochlea contain?

The organ of Corti, which has hair-like sensory cells.

9
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What is the role of the semicircular canals?

They help evaluate the position of the head in relation to gravity and maintain balance.

10
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What is motion sensitivity?

It is the excessive stimulation of equilibrium receptors causing nausea and vomiting.

11
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What are the two types of otitis?

Otitis externa and otitis media.

12
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What is otitis externa commonly known as?

Swimmer's ear.

13
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What causes hearing loss related to conduction problems?

Abnormalities in the external or middle ear preventing sound vibrations.

14
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What is presbycusis?

Hearing loss caused by a reduction in the number of receptor cells in the organ of Corti, typically affecting aging individuals.

15
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What is impacted cerumen?

Excessive earwax that blocks the auditory canal, leading to hearing loss.

16
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What characterizes Ménière's disease?

Recurrent attacks of vertigo, tinnitus, pressure sensation in the ear, and advancing hearing loss.

17
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What are common symptoms of the common cold and allergies affecting the ENT?

Changes in the nasal and oral mucosa.

18
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What is the purpose of an otoscope?

To examine the auditory canal.

19
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What does a tympanogram assess?

The air pressure of the middle ear and the mobility of the tympanic membrane.

20
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What questions should be asked during a medical assessment of ear problems?

Are you experiencing pain? Do you have a history of ear conditions? Do you have the problem in both ears? What medications have you taken for your symptoms?

21
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What is the function of the nasal cavity?

It acts as an airway passage for inhaling oxygen and exhaling carbon dioxide.

22
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What parts make up the throat?

The larynx and pharynx.

23
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What is the role of the pharynx in the throat?

It helps pass air into the lungs and food into the esophagus.

24
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What is the anterior naris?

The nostrils, which are part of the nose.

25
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What is the inferior concha?

A part of the nasal cavity.

26
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What is the tympanic membrane?

Also known as the eardrum, it conducts sound waves from the external auditory canal.

27
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What can cause conductive hearing loss?

Conditions that limit the vibration of the tympanic membrane or interfere with bone-conducted sound.

28
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What is the significance of the organ of Corti?

It contains sensory cells that are crucial for sound perception.

29
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What is the connection between the eustachian tube and the nasopharynx?

The eustachian tube connects to the nasopharynx and opens into the middle ear cavity.

30
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What are some risk factors that may indicate possible infections in children?

Exposure to second-hand smoke, use of pacifiers beyond six months, and exposure to large-group child care settings.

31
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What is the purpose of tuning fork testing?

To assess hearing through air conduction and bone conduction.

32
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What frequency of tuning fork is most commonly used in hearing tests?

512 hertz (Hz).

33
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What is the Weber test used for?

To evaluate conductive and sensory losses for hearing by placing a vibrating fork at the top of the head.

34
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How does the Rinne test compare air conduction with bone conduction?

By placing the vibrating fork on the mastoid process and then in front of the external ear canal.

35
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What does an audiometric test measure?

The lowest intensity of sounds that a person can hear.

36
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What is an audiogram?

A graph that charts the results of an audiometric test.

37
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What should a medical assistant do before performing an audiometric test?

Sanitize hands, assemble equipment, and ensure testing is done in a quiet area.

38
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What is the purpose of ear irrigation?

To remove a foreign body, excessive cerumen, or treat inflammation with antiseptic solutions.

39
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What discomfort might a patient experience during ear irrigation?

Coughing, vertigo, ear pain, or a tickle in the back of the throat.

40
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What are otic medications used for?

To soften impacted cerumen, relieve pain, treat infections, and relieve nausea from Ménière's disease.

41
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What are some common types of otic medications?

Cerumenolytics, otic anesthetics, otic anti-infectives, and otic steroids.

42
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What is myringotomy?

A surgical procedure to treat chronic otitis media by making an incision in the tympanic membrane to drain fluid.

43
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What is the purpose of tympanostomy tubes?

To continually drain fluid from the middle ear.

44
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What is a potential treatment for patients with Ménière's disease?

Surgical destruction of the affected labyrinth.

45
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What is the procedure for instilling otic medications?

Sanitize hands, tilt the head, warm the drops, and instill them in the ear canal while ensuring the dropper does not touch the canal.

46
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What should be done after administering otic drops?

Instruct the patient to rest on the opposite side for about 3 minutes.

47
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What is the role of a medical assistant during ear irrigation?

To explain the procedure, gather equipment, and ensure patient comfort.

48
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What is the first step in performing an audiometric test?

Sanitize hands and assemble the necessary equipment.

49
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How should the patient be positioned for ear irrigation?

With the head tilted toward the affected ear.

50
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What should be documented after performing ear procedures?

The details of the procedure in the patient's health record.

51
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What is the significance of checking the medication label three times?

To prevent medication errors.

52
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What should be done with the equipment after the procedure?

Disinfect the work area and equipment, dispose of gloves, and wash hands.

53
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What is the purpose of using an otoscope during ear irrigation?

To locate cerumen impaction.

54
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What technique is used to straighten the ear canal for medication administration?

Pulling the pinna up and back for older children and adults, or down and back for younger children.

55
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What is the expected outcome of the Rinne test in a normal hearing individual?

Air conduction should be heard longer than bone conduction.

56
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What is the primary goal of ear irrigation?

To clear the ear of blockages or infections.

57
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What is the primary function of cochlear implants?

To stimulate the auditory nerve using electrical impulses to help individuals with profound or complete hearing loss.

58
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How do cochlear implants work?

They bypass damaged portions of the ear and directly stimulate the auditory nerve.

59
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What dietary modifications are recommended for patients with Ménière's disease?

A salt-restricted diet, diuretics, and antihistamines to control edema in the labyrinth.

60
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What is the smallest organ in the human body?

The eye.

61
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What is the primary function of the eye?

To gather information about surroundings through light perception and visualization.

62
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What structures protect the eye from trauma?

Eyelids, eyebrows, and eyelashes.

63
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What is the role of the lacrimal gland?

To secrete tears that keep the eye moist.

64
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What is the function of the conjunctiva?

To keep the eye moist by secreting mucus and covering the eyeball.

65
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What are the three layers of the eyeball?

The outer layer (sclera and cornea), middle layer (choroid, iris, ciliary body), and inner layer (retina and lens).

66
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What is the function of the cornea?

To allow light to enter the eye and refract light rays.

67
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What is the role of the iris in the eye?

To regulate the size of the pupil according to light intensity.

68
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What is the function of the ciliary body?

To regulate the shape of the lens and secrete aqueous humor.

69
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What is vitreous humor?

A gel-like substance in the posterior cavity that maintains the shape of the eyeball.

70
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What is aqueous humor?

A fluid in the anterior cavity that maintains intraocular pressure and provides nutrients to the lens and cornea.

71
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What is hyperopia?

A condition where light focuses behind the retina, causing difficulty seeing close objects.

72
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What is myopia?

A condition where light focuses in front of the retina, causing distant objects to appear blurry.

73
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What causes presbyopia?

The lens becomes less flexible and ciliary muscles weaken due to aging.

74
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What is astigmatism?

A condition where light rays focus irregularly due to an irregular shape of the cornea or lens.

75
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What is strabismus?

A condition where the eyes fail to track together, often seen in children and adults.

76
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What is nystagmus?

Involuntary movement of one or both eyes, which can cause blurred vision.

77
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What is a hordeolum (stye)?

An infection of the sebaceous gland in the eyelid caused by staphylococci.

78
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What is a chalazion?

A cyst that occurs due to blockage of a Meibomian gland in the eyelid.

79
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What is keratitis?

Inflammation of the cornea that can result from infections, leading to superficial ulcerations.

80
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What is conjunctivitis?

Inflammation of the conjunctiva caused by irritation, allergy, or bacterial infection.

81
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What is a corneal abrasion?

Damage to the cornea caused by a foreign body or direct trauma.

82
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What is a cataract?

A clouding of the lens that impairs night vision and blocks light passage to the retina.

83
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What is glaucoma?

Increased intraocular pressure that damages the optic nerve and can cause blindness.

84
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What is macular degeneration?

Progressive deterioration of the macula lutea leading to loss of central vision, often related to age.

85
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What are the two forms of macular degeneration?

Dry and wet macular degeneration.

86
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Which form of macular degeneration is the most common?

The dry form.

87
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What is the progression rate of the wet form of macular degeneration?

It has a very acute onset and rapid progression.

88
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What percentage of severe vision loss is caused by the wet form of macular degeneration?

90%.

89
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What is the purpose of an ophthalmoscope?

To examine the interior of the eye.

90
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What does the light and accommodation (L&A) test assess?

The constrictive capacity of the pupils.

91
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What is blepharoptosis?

Drooping of the upper eyelid due to a disorder of the third cranial nerve or muscular weakness.

92
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What tool is used to measure intraocular pressure?

A tonometer with a slit lamp.

93
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What does fluorescein stain identify?

Corneal abrasion.

94
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What is the Snellen chart used for?

To test distance visual acuity.

95
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What does the Jaeger test evaluate?

Near vision.

96
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What is the purpose of the Ishihara test?

To detect total color-blindness and red-green blindness.

97
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What should the patient do during the distance visual acuity test?

Avoid squinting and read the chart aloud.

98
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How far should the patient stand from the Snellen chart?

20 feet.

99
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What indicates a patient has color vision defects during the Ishihara test?

If the patient is unable to read the number on the plate.

100
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What should be documented after performing the distance visual acuity test?

The number of errors made and the patient's reactions.