Exam 5 (questions I dk

On axial CT images, which muscle of the neck is seen most posteriorly?

1. sternocleidomastoid

2. erector spinae

3. posterior scalene

4. longus capitis/longus colli

2. erector spinae

The lungs are supplied with blood by the:

1.     aorta

2.     pulmonary artery

3.     bronchial artery

4.     carotid artery

2. pulmonary artery

What divides the nasopharynx and the oropharynx:

1.     soft palate

2.     epiglottis

3.     auditory tube

4.     tonsils

1.     soft palate

FYI

Epiglottis separates: oropharynx and hypopharynx

The fold of dura that divides the right and left hemispheres of the cerebrum is :

1.     corpus callosum

2.     falx cerebri

3.     tentorium

4.     pia mater

2.     falx cerebri

Cerebro-spinal fluid is formed in the:

1.    corpus callosum

2.     subarachnoid space

3.     choroid plexus

4.     arachnoid

3.     choroid plexus (by ependymal cells)

The part of the body which forms an angle between the upper and lower eyelids is called:

1.    lacrimal sac

2.     orbit

3.     canthus

4.     nasion

3.     canthus

The final branches of the bronchi are the:

1. pulmones

2. bronchus

3. lobules

4. alveoli   

4. alveoli   

Primary bronchi→ secondary (lobar) bronchi→ tertiary (Segmental) bronchi→ bronchioles (microscopic)→ alveoli

The smallest unit of protoplasm that is capable of independent existence is the:

1.     atom

2.     nucleus

3.     cell

4.     amoeba

3. cell

Reasoning

protoplasm: the colorless material comprising the living part of a cell, including the cytoplasm, nucleus, and other organelles.

The thoracic duct begins in the abdominal cavity at the level of :

1.     T11

2.     L2

3.     L4

4.     L5

5.     S1

2. L2

Reasoning:

Cuz it begins at cisterna chyli

Other sructures at L2

1. pancreas head (body at L1)

2. Spinal cord ends (L1-L2)

Which of the following structures is not in the mediastinum:

1.     paratracheal nodes

2.     cisterna chyli

3.     esophagus

4.     vena cava

5.     thymus

2.     cisterna chyli

Reasoning:

Cuz it is at the level of L2

List the 3 types of cartilage

1. Hyaline cartilage

• Most common

• Found in: nose, trachea, ribs (costal), articular surfaces, fetal skeleton

2. Elastic cartilage

• Flexible, contains elastic fibers

• Found in: ear (pinna), epiglottis, auditory tube

3. Fibrocartilage

• Tough, dense, resists compression

• Found in: intervertebral discs, pubic symphysis, menisci

The 3 Functional Classifications (movement‑based) of joints

• Synarthroses — immovable joints
  (e.g., skull sutures)

• Amphiarthroses — slightly movable
  (e.g., pubic symphysis, intervertebral discs)

• Diarthroses — freely movable
  (these are your synovial joints)

The 3 Structural Classifications (what they’re made of)

• Fibrous joints → usually synarthroses

• Cartilaginous joints → usually amphiarthroses

• Synovial joints → always diarthroses

Fu CkS

6 Types of Synovial (Diarthrodial) Joints

• Hinge (elbow, knee)

• Pivot (atlas/axis)

• Ball‑and‑socket (hip, shoulder)

• Saddle (thumb CMC)

• Condyloid (wrist)

• Gliding/Plane (intercarpals)

Prince Harry Pulled Charles’ Saddle Bag

Stensens duct drains:

1.     submandibular salivary glands

2.     parotid salivary gland

3.     sublingual salivary glands

4.     cisterna chyli

5.     cisterna magna

2.     parotid salivary gland

The double-fold of peritoneum which anchors the small intestine to the posterior abdominal wall is:

1.     lesser omentum

2.     greater omentum

3.     mesentery

4.     mucosa

5.     none of these

3.     mesentery

Reasoning:

The main difference between omentum and mesentery is that omentum is a fatty blanket hanging down in front of all the intestines, whereas mesentery is the supporting tissue to both small and large intestines.

Furthermore, omentum originates from the visceral peritoneum while mesentery originates from the parietal peritoneum.

Moreover, the two main types of omentum are the greater and the lesser omentum while the two types of the mesentery are the dorsal and ventral mesentery. 

Identify from the drawing below, the lesser trochanter: 

1.     A

2.     B

3.     C

4.     D

4. D

FYI:

A: SI joint

B: Femoral head-Acetabulum

C: Greater Trochanter

The spleen lies in the ___________ quadrant of the abdominal cavity:

1.     right upper

2.     left upper

3.     right lower

4.     left lower

2.     left upper

The lesser curvature of the stomach is on the ________ border:

1.     medial

2.     lateral

3.     anterior

4.     posterior

5.     none of these

1.     medial

A group of cancer cells that have invaded a blood vessel and have become detached is known as a:

1.     thrombus

2.     metastasis

3.     tumor embolus

4.     neoplasm

3. tumor embolus

Reasoning:

Thrombus- stationary

embolus- moving

The scalene node lies:

1.     below the clavicle

2.     above the clavicle

3.     at the pelvic brim

4.     superior to the diaphragm

5.     posterior to the manubrium

2.     above the clavicle

Reasoning:

Scalene Node

Left supraclavicular node

Virchow’s node

The most distal of the following list of structures of the large bowel is:

1.     cecum

2.     ascending colon

3.     descending colon

4.     sigmoid colon

5.     appendix

4. sigmoid colon

The true vocal cord is called the:

1.     larynx

2.     supraglottis

3.     glottis

4.     subglottis

3.     glottis

FYI:

Larynx is the cartilage that protects it

list the 9 regions of the body

Between what vertebra do kidneys sit

T11-L3

Organs in retroperitoneal vs intraperitoneal cavity

intraperitoneal- Digestive organs, spleen

Retroperitoneal- blood vessels, kidneys & their structures, esophagus, rectum

In which region is it

1. Cecum

2. Stomach (fundus)

3. Pancreas (body)

4. Right kidney

5. Sigmoid colon

6. Appendix

7. Spleen

8. Transverse colon

9. Bladder

10. Liver (right lobe)

11. Small intestine loops

12. Gallbladder

13. Left kidney

14. Pancreas (head)

15. Stomach (general)

16. Uterus

17. Ascending colon

18. Descending colon

19. Duodenum (1st–3rd parts)

20. Adrenal glands

21. Splenic flexure

22. Hepatic flexure

1. Cecum → Right Iliac

2. Stomach (fundus) → Left Hypochondriac

3. Pancreas (body) → Epigastric

4. Right kidney → Right Lumbar

5. Sigmoid colon → Left Iliac / Hypogastric

6. Appendix → Right Iliac

7. Spleen → Left Hypochondriac

8. Transverse colon → Umbilical

9. Bladder → Hypogastric

10. Liver (right lobe) → Right Hypochondriac

11. Small intestine loops → Multiple (mostly Umbilical, Lumbar, Iliac)

12. Gallbladder → Right Hypochondriac

13. Left kidney → Left Lumbar

14. Pancreas (head) → Umbilical

15. Stomach (general) → Epigastric

16. Uterus → Hypogastric

17. Ascending colon → Right Lumbar

18. Descending colon → Left Lumbar

19. Duodenum (1st–3rd parts) → Epigastric

20. Adrenal glands → Epigastric

21. Splenic flexure → Left Hypochondriac

22. Hepatic flexure → Right Hypochondriac

The organ which lies in the left hypochondrium posteriorly, close to the 9-11th ribs and whose medial end is 5cm from the midline is the:

1.     kidney

2.     stomach

3.     colon

4.     spleen

D. spleen

Double check

Which of the following organs is situated immediately medial to the lateral vertical planes of the anterior superior iliac spine:

1.     kidneys

2.     uterus

3.     ovaries

4.     bladder

1.     ovaries

Erythropoiesis takes place in the:

1.     spleen

2.     red bone marrow

3.     thymus gland

4.     yellow bone marrow

2.     red bone marrow

The lymphatic vessels in the villi of the small intestine are called:

1.     lacteals

2.     crypts

3.     sinusoids

4.     cisterns

1.     lacteals

One of the chief variables influencing normal blood volume is:

1.     the amount of body fat

2.     heart size

3.     the number of anastomoses in the circulatory system

4.     liver size

1.     the amount of body fat

Reasoning:

Blood volume is tied to lean body mass, not total body weight.

• Muscle is highly vascular → needs more blood

• Fat tissue is poorly vascular → needs much less blood

So:

👉 People with more body fat have lower blood volume per kilogram
👉 People with more lean mass have higher blood volume per kilogram

This makes body fat percentage one of the chief variables affecting total blood volume.

The protein released from body cells following viral invasion, and which acts to defend other body cells, is:

1.     Prothrombin

2.     Keratin

3.     Interferon

4.     Glucagon

3.     Interferon

Reasoning:

Prothrombin- clots

keratin: hair and nails

Glucagon: when glucose is gone, stores sugar

The bone which serves as the keystone in the architecture of the cranium is the ___________ bone:

1.     Occipital

2.     Temporal

3.     Frontal

4.     None of these

4. none of these

Reasoning:

The keystone bone is the “sphenoid bone”

• It articulates with all other cranial bones

• It sits centrally and helps hold the skull together

As a person grows older, their skeletal muscles undergo a process called:

1.     Atony

2.     Atrophy

3.     Fibrosis

4.     Hypertrophy

2.     Atrophy

Reasoning:

-trophy: nourishment, growth, or development of cells, tissues, or organs

Pain receptors are also called:

1.     Proprioceptors

2.     Nociceptors

3.     Ruffini's corpuscles

4.     Meissner's corpuscles

2.     Nociceptors

Hint:

noxious plant- bad for you nociceptors detect that

Ruffini- stretch (Mr. Fantastic stretched to Ruiffini a drink)

messi- light touch (messi’s got that light touch)

Which type of tissue serves as a protective barrier and for moving substances into and out of the blood?

1.     Epithelial

2.     Connective

3.     Muscle

4.     Nervous

1.     Epithelial

Reasoning:

• Forms protective barriers (skin, lining of organs, GI tract)

• Lines blood vessels (endothelium)

• Controls movement of substances into and out of the blood
  (diffusion, filtration, secretion, absorption)

This includes things like capillary walls, which are made of simple squamous epithelium — extremely thin to allow exchange.

The liquid environment around cells is called:

1.     blood plasma

2.     cellular plasma

3.     interstitial fluid

4.     environment fluid

3.     interstitial fluid

Because the esophageal wall is thin, ______________ metastases from a lesion of the esophagus occurs early---I. Local; II. Distant; III. Lung

1.     I

2.     I, II

3.     I, II, III

4.     II, III

1. I

reasoning:

Esophageal skip metastases can extend up to ~5 cm from the primary tumor.

Key “occurs early”

The patient's most common complaint prior to diagnosis of a soft tissue sarcoma is:

1.     A bruise

2.     A painless lump

3.     A painful lump

4.     An ulcerated area on the skin

2. Painless lump

What is the single most important factor in the outcome of soft tissue sarcoma patients?

histologic grade of tumor

The less differentiated they are the worse it gets

Soft tissue sarcoma etiologies

1. Previous RTT- breast & HD

2. Von Recklinghausen (aka Neurofibromatosis) (many tumors)

3. Li-Fraumeni syndrome (P53)

RV Life -isn’t soft!

Kruckenberg's tumor is a malignant tumor of the :

1.     Gastrointestinal tract

2.     Uterus and vagina

3.     Ovary which is frequently secondary to a malignancy of the gastrointestinal tract

4.     Apex of the lung which is frequently secondary to a malignancy 

5.      of the breast.

3.Ovary which is frequently secondary to a malignancy of the gastrointestinal tract

reasoning:

Wikipedia

A Krukenberg tumor refers to a malignancy in the ovary that metastasized from a primary site, classically the gastrointestinal tract, although it can arise in other tissues such as the breast.

GI→ ovary

The principle mode of metastatic spread of sarcomas is via:

1.     lymphatics

2.     bloodstream

3.     direct extension

4.     peritoneal implantation

2.     bloodstream

The principle mode of metastatic spread of carcinomas is via:

1.     lymphatics

2.     bloodstream

3.     direct extension

4.     peritoneal implantation

1.     lymphatics

Carcinoma is a malignant tumor of :

1.     connective tissue

2.     epithelial tissue

3.     neural tissue

4.     endothelial tissue

2.     epithelial tissue

Sarcoma is a malignant tumor of---I. connective tissue; II. neural (crest) tissue; III. endothelial tissue

1.     I, II

2.     II, III

3.     I, III

4.     I, II, III

4.     I, II, III

DOUBLE CHECK

Reasoning:

• Connective tissue (bone, cartilage, fat, muscle) → YES

• Endothelial tissue (blood vessels, lymphatics) → YES
  Examples: angiosarcoma, Kaposi sarcoma

The period of time between cells becoming cancerous and uncontrolled cellular growth leading to a tumor mass is the:

1.    period of independence

2.    latent period    

3.     period of induction

4.     period of carcinogenesis

2.    latent period    

Which of the following tumors is most likely to metastasize via the transportation route?

1.     Cancer of the ovary

2.     Cancer of the bladder

3.     Cancer of the rectum

4.     Cancer of the kidney

1.     Cancer of the ovary

Reasoning:

transportation route: blood route , i,e, a sarcoma

bladder- transitional cell carcinoma (most common)

rectum-

kidney- RCC (renal cell carcinoma

Ovary - adenocarcioma

Most common pathologies of the digestive tract:

Esophagus: SCC

Stomach: 1.adeno, 2.lymphoma

Duodenum & Jejunum: adeno

Ileum: carcinoid

Colon: adeno

Rectum: SCC, carcinoid

Anal: SCC

FYI:

rectum and stomach have 2

Options are SAC of SHlT: SCC, Adeno, Carcinoid

Which of the following CNS tumors is NOT associated with total spinal irradiation (TSI) as a treatment option? (just list the ones that are instead)

1. Medulloblastoma -best answer

2. Ependymoma

3. Pineal Blastoma (pinealoma)

4. Oligodendroglioma

Which of the following is not a CNS tumor that usually requires a lumbar puncture as part of the diagnostic work-up? (list the ones that require it instead)

1. Medulloblastoma

2. High-Grade Ependymomas

3. Leukemia

To exclude Meningeal involvement

The examination of cells recovered from secretions, tissue washings, sputum, vaginal secretions, or exudates is known as:

1.     electron microscopy

2.     exfoliative cytology

3.     needle aspiration

4.     tissue culture

Exfoliative cytology is a minimally invasive diagnostic technique that examines cells shed from body surfaces or collected by brushing or scraping to detect abnormalities, infections, or malignancies.

Mets chart

Carcinogenesis may be a multistage process occurring over many years. Rank the following stages in chronologic order---I. Dysplasia; II. Promotion; III. Carcinoma in situ; IV. Initiation; V. Invasive carcinoma

1.     II, I, IV, III, V

2.     IV, I, II, III, V

3.     IV, II, I, III, V

4.     IV, II, I, V, III

3. IV, II, I, III, V

Even if you don't remember all of this, you know this has to end with invasive carcinoma, and you may/should remember that this starts with initiation. Just knowing those two narrows it down to only two choices left

Excessive alcohol consumption has NOT been associated with which type of cancer?

1.     buccal mucosa

2.     liver

3.     breast

4.     lung

5.     Hodgkin's Lymphoma

5. HD

Also kids get HD and they don’t drink

Mnemonic: BELL COP

1. Breast

2. Esophageal

3. Liver

4. Larynx

5. Colon & Rectal (colorectal)

6. Oral cavity

7. Pharynx: Oropharynx & Hypopharynx

FYI for smoking related: LOL PB Sandwiches Are Cool

Lung

Oral cavity

Larynx, pharynx, esophagus (LPE)

Pancreatic

Bladder & Kidney

Stomach

AML (adult + child)

Cervical

Any benign epithelial tumor, especially of the skin or mucous membranes is known as a/an:

1.     adenoma

2.     papilloma

3.     lipoma

4.     nevus

2.     papilloma

types of benign tumors

https://knowt.com/flashcards/948bd295-d6d0-4df2-9730-0f8ff62d371d

The objective of a staging system are to do all of the following EXCEPT:

1.     assist physicians in treatment planning

2.     assist pathologists in establishing a tissue diagnosis 

3.     give an indication of prognosis

4.     assist in evaluation of treatment results

2.     assist pathologists in establishing a tissue diagnosis 

Of the following, which tumor is not benign?

1.     chromophobe adenoma

2.     basophilic adenoma

3.     eosinophilic adenoma

4.     pineoblastoma

4.     pineoblastoma

Osteogenic sarcoma usually effects the long bone:

1.     metaphysis    

2.     epiphysis

3.     diaphysis

4.     periosteum

1.     metaphysis    

the growth plate

The age at which Wilm's tumor is most likely to occur is _________ years.

1.     1-5

2.     5-10

3.     10-17

4.     18-25

1.     1-5

Extra avg. age for all tumors (onc)

Extra: 5 year survivals for all cancers (onc 1)

BS RW Men

ENGish LP Racist

Hodgkin's lymphomas constitute approximately _% of all malignant lymphomas.

1.     20

2.     40

3.     50

4.     80

1.     20

Reasoning:

The rest are NHL: 80% of all lymphomas

80% NHL
20% HD

Tumors of the upper third of the esophagus constitute about ___ % of esophageal tumors.

1.     20

2.     30

3.     40

4.     50

1.     20

FYI:

The vast majority of esophageal tumors are lower esophagus

L‑M‑U = 60‑30‑10”

How is the esophagus divided

Upper 1/3 (cervical): C6-T2: Cricoid Cartilage - Manubrium

Middle 1/3: T2-T8: Manubrium - Hilum

Lower 1/3 (thoracic): T8-T10(/11): Hilum- GE (gastroesophageal) Junction  

Ca's of the supraglottis mets chiefly to the:

1.     lungs

2.     brain

3.     lymph nodes

4.     bones

3.     lymph nodes

Female most common pathologies:

1. Ovarian

2. Endometrium

3. Vaginal

4. Cervical

1. Ovarian- epithelial

2. Endometrium-adeno

3. Vaginal- SCC

4. Cervical- SCC

Ca of the maxillary antrum spreads by means of:

1.    local invasion

2.     lymphatic spread

3.     hematologic spread

4.     distant mets

1.    local invasion

Reasoning:

The maxillary sinus has:

• Thin bony walls

• Very rich local connections to the orbit, nasal cavity, palate, pterygopalatine fossa, and infratemporal fossa

• Relatively sparse lymphatic drainage compared to other head & neck sites

Because of this anatomy, the tumor tends to erode bone early and extend directly into nearby structures.

Which type of lung ca is most clearly related to cigarette smoking?

1.     small cell ca

2.     squamous cell ca

3.     adeno ca

4.     large cell ca

2.     squamous cell ca

Hint:

Smoking Squamous

Approximately 3/4 of stomach cancer occurs near the:

1.     pylorus, or on the lesser curvature side of the antrum

2.     pylorus, or on the greater curvature side of the antrum

3.     body of the stomach

4.     fundus of the stomach

1.     pylorus, or on the lesser curvature side of the antrum

Reasoning:

Distal part of lesser curvature (maybe cuz H pylori)

A patient with what type of ca is at risk for developing a cardiac tamponade?

1.     lung

2.     Hodgkin’s Disease

3.     colon

4.     brain metastases

1. Lung

Reasoning:

lung cancer is the one most classically associated with developing a cardiac tamponade.

The pericardium sits directly next to the left lung and mediastinum.
Certain lung cancers — especially left‑sided, adenocarcinoma, or small‑cell — can:

1. Directly invade the pericardium

Tumor grows into the pericardial sac → fluid accumulates → tamponade.

2. Spread to pericardial lymphatics

Lung cancer commonly metastasizes to mediastinal nodes → blocks lymphatic drainage → pericardial effusion → tamponade.

3. Cause malignant pericardial effusion

Cancer cells seed the pericardium → fluid builds up rapidly.

Malignant testicular tumors originate in the:

1.     germ cells

2.     spermatic cord

3.     glandular tissue

4.     Leydig cells

1.     germ cells

Reasoning: That is why they are called Seminomas

The most common lung ca is:

1.     adeno carcinoma

2.     large cell carcinoma

3.     mesothelioma

4.     oat cell carcinoma

1.     adeno carcinoma

Seminomas are more common in the _______ decade of life.

1.     second

2.     fourth

3.     seventh

4.     eighth

2.     fourth

Men in their 30s-40s

Ca of the uterus usually spreads by:

1.     local invasion

2.     hematologic

3.     lymphatic

4.     coelomic

1.     local invasion

Reasoning:

Probably why it has a really good prognosis

Lesions of the piriform fossa show early spread to the __________ lymph nodes.

1.     mediastinal

2.     infradiaphragmatic

3.     pelvic

4.     cervical  

4.     cervical  

Piriform fossa is #1 cancer of the hypopharynx

The peak incidence of breast ca occurs at about age:

1.     20

2.     30

3.     65

4.     90

3.     65

reasoning: 65-70

Mesotheliomas are tumors of the:

1.     pleura

2.     brain

3.     bronchi

4.     lymph nodes

1.     pleura

The point of origin of ca of the pancreas is usually the:

1.     pancreatic duct

2.     head of the pancreas

3.     tail of the pancreas

4.     Islets of Langerhans

2.     head of the pancreas

reasoning:

point of origin: most common cancer location in pancreas

Pancreas spinal level

L1-L2

pancreas pathologies

Which of the following statements about bladder ca is incorrect?

1.     it is among the top 5 most common ca in men

2.     it shows an increased incidence in analine dye workers

3.     there is a strong relationship with smoking

4.     cure rates are generally 85% or greater

4.   cure rates are generally 85% or greater

reasoning:

• Bladder cancer overall 5‑year survival ≈ 75–80%

• Muscle‑invasive disease has much worse survival than superficial disease

Bladder cancer staging

According to the FIGO system, a patient with a lesion that extends into the lower vagina is classified as stage:

1.     I

2.     II

3.     III

4.     IV

3.     III

Cervical cancer staging

List all the pap smear classifications and what disorder or other bit of information they represent:

Ann Arbor Staging System

4 stages of colorectal cancer TNM staging system

Stage I (or A): Invasion into the submucosa

Stage II (or B): Invasion into the serosa

Stage III (or C): Invasion into the serosa w/ + nodes

Stage IV (or D): Any invasion w/ distant mets

Laryngeal cancer staging for Glottis “true vocal cord” tx

T1 Confined to cord + normal cord mobility

T2 Supra- or sub-glottic extension + normal or impaired cord mobility

T3 Confined to larynx + fixed vocal cords

T4 Extension beyond larynx and/or Cartilage destruction

Breast cancer staging

Tis- carcinoma in-situ

T1- tumor 2cm or less

• T1a - no fixation to underlying fascia

• T1b - fixation to underlying fascia

T2 - tumor greater than 2 cm, but less than 5 cm (2-5cm)

T3 - tumor greater than 5 cm

T4 - tumor of any size with direct extension to the chest wall or skin

Rai staging system for CLL

Stage 0: lymphocytosis only (excessive # of lymphocytes)

Stage 1: Stage 0 + Lymph Node Enlargement

Stage 2: Stage 1 + Splenic Involvement

Stage 3: Stage 2 + Anemia

Stage 4: Stage 3 + Thrombocytopenia

FYI: lymphocytosis is high # of lymphocytes in blood

With vaginal and cervical cancers, there is an increased risk of clear cell adenocarcinoma and abnormalities o the stratified epithelium in women whose mothers (during pregnancy) use which of the following drugs:

1.     Diethlstilbestrol (DES)

2.     Dihydrotestosterone (DEET)

3.     Dysmenorrheal (DMH)

4.     Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)

1.     Diethlstilbestrol (DES)

The most common histologic type for small bowel cancer is:

1.     Squamous cell

2.     Hepatic sarcoma

3.     Adenocarcinoma

4.     Transitional cell carcinoma

3.     Adenocarcinoma

The most common histologic type for cancer of the stomach is:

1.     Squamous cell

2.     Adenocarcinoma

3.     Lymphoma

4.     Transitional cell carcinoma

2.     Adenocarcinoma

Common sites of metastases for colon cancer are: 1. Liver; 2. Lung; 3. Peritoneum; 4. Bone

1.     1,3

2.     2,3

3.     2,3,4

4.     1,2,3

3. 2,3,4

Reasoning:

BUT REALLY IT SHOULD BE 4

In Hodgkin disease, involvement of several nodal regions of both sides of the diaphragm accompanied by localized involvement of an extralymphatic site is stage:

1.     II

2.     II E

3.     III

4.     III E

4.     III E

In the treatment of Waldeyer ring for nonHodgkin lymphoma, the fields’ delineation closely resembles that of carcinoma of the:

1.     Supraclavicular fossa nodes

2.     Orbit

3.     Pelvis

4.     Nasopharynx

4.  Nasopharynx

A young woman has swelling in her lower neck for suspected HD. A chest x-ray also revealed mediastinal adenopathy. She had not experienced any fever, night sweats, or weight loss. Staging would be:

1.     I A

2.     II A

3.     II B

4.     III A

2.     II A